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  • Question 1 - The chromosomes that principally encode for proteins or RNA molecules involved in mitochondrial...

    Correct

    • The chromosomes that principally encode for proteins or RNA molecules involved in mitochondrial function are found:

      Your Answer: In the nucleus of each diploid cell

      Explanation:

      While mitochondria have their own small circular DNA (mtDNA) that encodes some of the proteins and RNAs required for mitochondrial function, the majority of proteins involved in mitochondrial function are encoded by nuclear DNA. These nuclear genes are transcribed in the nucleus and then translated into proteins in the cytoplasm. The proteins are subsequently imported into the mitochondria.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      • In the nucleus of each diploid cell

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      24.3
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA...

    Incorrect

    • In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA sequence and the stem cells is known as:

      Your Answer: Recombination

      Correct Answer: Insertion

      Explanation:

      Chimerisation is also known as the formation of recombinant DNA. When a foreign DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid or other DNA sequence, this process is known as insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      18.4
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Diploid human cells have 46 chromosomes, 23 inherited from each parent

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      87.2
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - The process where by DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is...

    Correct

    • The process where by DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      27.3
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:...

    Correct

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:

      Your Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      37.5
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      75.3
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true? ...

    Correct

    • With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true?

      Your Answer: P53 is a RNA binding protein

      Explanation:

      P53 is a tumour suppressor gene. It is not an RNA binding protein. It has been implicated in almost all tumours. It regulates the progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle and is activated in response to damaged DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      98.8
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) does indeed lack introns, meaning that its genes are closely packed with coding sequences. This actually means that any point mutation in the mtDNA is more likely to have an effect, not less. The lack of introns means there are fewer non-coding regions where mutations can occur without affecting gene function. Thus, mutations in mtDNA often have significant consequences because they are more likely to alter essential coding sequences.

      The other statements are true:

      • Most mitochondrial diseases are myopathies and neuropathies with a maternal pattern of inheritance: This is correct because mtDNA is inherited maternally, and many mitochondrial disorders affect muscle and nerve function.
      • Retinal degeneration, diabetes mellitus, and some forms of hearing loss are some of the other diseases attributed to mitochondrial chromosome defects: These are indeed conditions associated with mitochondrial defects.
      • Mitochondrial chromosome defects are inherited from one’s mother: This is correct, as mtDNA is passed from mother to offspring.
      • Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON), the commonest cause of blindness in young men, is an example of a mitochondrial chromosome defect: This is true; LHON is a well-known mitochondrial disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.4
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Normal eukaryote somatic cells have: ...

    Correct

    • Normal eukaryote somatic cells have:

      Your Answer: 23 pairs of chromosomes

      Explanation:

      A normal somatic eukaryotic cell contains 46 chromosomes i.e. 23 pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      24
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:...

    Correct

    • The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true:

      Your Answer: Penetrance is complete

      Correct Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 50% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Explanation:

      50% of the children will be effected from parents who are heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disorder. An allele can be dominant or recessive. Individuals, meanwhile, can be homozygous or heterozygous: individuals who are homozygous for a certain gene carry two copies of the same allele. individuals who are heterozygous for a certain gene carry two different alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      576.4
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Diploid human cells have 46 chromosomes, 23 inherited from each parent

      Correct Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      24.9
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      26.6
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons....

    Incorrect

    • Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons. How many common amino acids are there and how many potential codon combinations make up the genetic code?

      Your Answer: 12 amino acids, 64 codon combinations

      Correct Answer: 20 amino acids, 64 codon combinations

      Explanation:

      There are around 20 amino acids and 61 out of the 64 combinations of codon code for these 20 common amino acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      190.4
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves:

      Your Answer: DNA replication

      Correct Answer: Replicated DNA condensing to form visible chromosomes

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages (laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis). In prophase 1, chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      51.9
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true for P 53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P 53:

      Your Answer: It binds e2f and stops the cell cycle at the g 1 phase

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      21.6
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through:

      Your Answer: Mutations in p53

      Correct Answer: Point mutations in genomic DNA

      Explanation:

      80% of the pancreatic cancers are environmentally influenced by smoking which increases the risk by 50%. Mutation can occur in the KRAS, p16, SMAD4, and TP53 genes among other tumour suppression genes. Smoking can be implicated in transformation of all these genes. Apart from KRAS all the genes are inactivated in pancreatic cancer. As KRAS is the most commonly altered gene, mutation occurs as point mutation. As smoking is the most common aetiology in pancreatic cancer, and KRAS is the most important gene that is altered. Most commonly cigarette smoke causes point mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      38.9
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which...

    Incorrect

    • The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which end of the guanosine rich region.

      Your Answer: 6th end

      Correct Answer: 3rd end

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5th-3rd direction resulting in extension of the 3rd end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:

      Your Answer: Males are never affected

      Correct Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      47.5
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together...

    Correct

    • In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together by:

      Your Answer: Hydrogen bonding.

      Explanation:

      Nucleotides will always bind together via hydrogen bonds. There are two hydrogen bonds present between thymine and adenine and three hydrogen bonds present between guanine and cytosine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      28.8
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis: ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:

      Your Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes

      Explanation:

      There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      35.8
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Correct

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.9
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Correct

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      34
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit:

      Your Answer: All of them fit

      Correct Answer: All gene mutations cause clinical disease entities

      Explanation:

      All gene mutations do not cause a clinical manifestation of the disease, some gene mutations are silent mutations. They are present but do not cause any disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      51.4
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA?

      Your Answer: After the splicing of introns, the mature mRNA moves out of the nucleus towards the endoplasmic reticulum.

      Correct Answer: A gene is always read in the 3’-5’ orientation and at 3’ promoter sites.

      Explanation:

      In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes RNA polymerase acts in the 5′-3′ direction and hence the RNA is transcribed in this direction. The mRNA produced is immature as it has introns as well as exons presents. It undergoes a process known as splicing to remove the exons and then interacts with the ribosomes to form proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      88
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto-...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto- oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes in the following ways.

      Your Answer: Gene amplification

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of P53

      Explanation:

      Proto oncogenes cannot be transformed into oncogenes due to inhibition of P53 gene. There has to be a mutation in the proto oncogene. All the other options are true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      33.8
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except:

      Your Answer: Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analysed more quickly by PCR.

      Correct Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In knockout mouse models, a gene is not turned on but rather turned off or “knocked out” through targeted mutation. This involves disrupting or deleting the gene to study the effects of its loss of function. Knockout models are crucial for understanding the roles of specific genes, particularly those with unknown functions.

      The other statements are true:

      • Knockout models are important in studying the roles of sequenced genes with unknown function.
      • RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) can be subcategorized as SLP (single locus probe) and MLP (multi locus probe).
      • RFLP analysis is slow and cumbersome and is now largely obsolete, having been replaced by more efficient techniques.
      • Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analyzed more quickly by PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      126.1
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: X linked recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Consanguinity involves being from the same kinship as another person. It is a common feature of an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      35.1
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Male to male transmission is a key factor of which type of inheritance?...

    Incorrect

    • Male to male transmission is a key factor of which type of inheritance?

      Your Answer: X linked dominant

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant type of inheritance can include both sexes in the same ratio. There is no skipping a generation and father to son transmission is common. The passing of the trait is sex independent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer: It binds e2f and stops the cell cycle at the g 1 phase

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (13/30) 43%
Medicine (13/30) 43%
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