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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus.

      What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.

      The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.

      The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.

      The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.

      Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      212.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent...

    Correct

    • This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.

      Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved.
      Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.

      The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain.

    Which nerve is responsible...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain.

      Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the name of the space between the vocal cords? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Vestibule

      Correct Answer: Rima glottidis

      Explanation:

      The rima glottidis is a narrow, triangle-shaped opening between the true vocal cords.

      The vocal folds (true vocal cords) control sound production. The apex of each fold projects medially into the laryngeal cavity.

      Each vocal fold includes these vocal ligaments:

      Vocalis muscle (most medial part of thyroarytenoid muscle)

      The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes and rima glottidis.

      The rima glottidis is the narrowest potential site within the larynx, as the vocal cords may be completely opposed, forming a complete barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.

      What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?

      Your Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
      From superior to inferior, these are the:
      – Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
      – Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
      – Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
      – Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
      – Cervical branch supplying platysma.

      There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy—conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her upper abdomen to her physician....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her upper abdomen to her physician. The pain comes intermittently in waves and gets worse after eating food. There are no associated complaints of fever or bowel problems.

      The pain intensity is 6/10, and paracetamol relieves it a little. There is suspicion that part of the biliary tree is blocked.

      Which area of the duodenum does this blocked tube open into?

      Your Answer: 2nd part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from biliary colic since her pain is intermittent and comes and goes in waves. Biliary colic pain gets worse after eating, especially fatty food as bile helps digest fats. Gallstones are the most common cause of biliary colic and are usually located in the cystic duct or common bile duct. But since this patient has no signs of jaundice or steatorrhea, the duct most likely blocked is the cystic duct.

      The cystic duct drains the gallbladder and combines with the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct. The common bile duct then merges with the pancreatic duct and opens into the second part of the duodenum (major duodenal papilla).

      The duodenojejunal flexure is attached to the diaphragm by the ligament of Treitz and is not associated with any common pathology.
      The fourth part of the duodenum passes very close to the abdominal aorta and can be compressed by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
      The third part of the duodenum can be affected by superior mesenteric artery syndrome, where the duodenum is compressed between the SMA and the aorta, often in cases of reduced body fat.
      The first part of the duodenum is the most common location for peptic ulcers affecting this organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      150.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone.

      Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds.

      Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Follicular cells of the thyroid gland

      Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.

      In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
      Glucagon
      Cortisol
      Adrenaline

      Adrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.

      Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.

      Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.

      Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?

      Your Answer: Bicipital aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.

      It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

      Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.7
      Seconds

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