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  • Question 1 - A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is? ...

    Incorrect

    • A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?

      Your Answer: Renal papillary necrosis

      Correct Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?

      Your Answer: Narrowing of small airways

      Correct Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve

      Explanation:

      Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.

      Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.

      There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.

      The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?

      Your Answer: Arteriolar constriction

      Correct Answer: Venoconstriction

      Explanation:

      In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.

      In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.

      Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.

      In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.

      In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.

      Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.

      Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.

      The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?

      Your Answer: A diffusion defect in oxygen transport

      Correct Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.

      The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.

      The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.

      The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).

      An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.

      Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.

      The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.

      Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?

      Your Answer: Krebs' cycle can function under anaerobic conditions

      Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.

      This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.

      It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.

      Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10%...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.

      Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?

      Your Answer: 1100 kcal

      Correct Answer: 1300 kcal

      Explanation:

      1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.

      A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.

      1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.

      A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.

      1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.

      The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer...

    Incorrect

    • A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure.

      Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?

      Your Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to the density of mercury

      Correct Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable

      Explanation:

      A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.

      Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A). 

      Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
      Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
      Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
      Pressure is proportional to L

      The numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.

      The length is proportional to the applied pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The fluids with the highest osmolarity is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?

      Your Answer: 0.9% N. Saline

      Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose

      Explanation:

      The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

      Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

      0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
      Tonicity – hypertonic
      Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

      0.9% N. Saline:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      5% Dextrose:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

      Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      Hartmann’s solution:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.

      If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:

      Your Answer: Increases the reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body

      Explanation:

      The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.

      Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (1/10) 10%
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