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  • Question 1 - Regarding fertilization & implantation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fertilization & implantation:

      Your Answer: Implantation occurs at the morula stage

      Correct Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside

      Explanation:

      During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe:

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus

      Correct Answer: Clostridia

      Explanation:

      Obligate anaerobes are a group of bacteria that cannot survive in an oxygen-rich environment. In the body, they are usually found on mucosal membranes such as that of the lower gastrointestinal system, or the vagina. Infection with these organisms is usually suprative and causes abscesses. Examples of gram-negative anaerobes include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium and Prevotella, while gram-positive anaerobes include Actinomyces and Clostridia. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are both gram-positive facultative anaerobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?

      Your Answer: Fat 18% Protein 5% Sugar 5%

      Correct Answer: Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%

      Explanation:

      Breast milk contains around 4% fat, 7% sugar and 1% proteins. The rest is water and minerals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: < 8 cm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: ...

    Correct

    • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:

      Your Answer: Luteinizing hormone

      Explanation:

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is the hormone responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: It has been shown to reduce perinatal mortality

      Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits

      Explanation:

      Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Correct

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.

      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. 

      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy.  On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. 

      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse.  Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head.  Fetal monitoring is category I.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction.  The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. 

      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to her GP with concerns regarding the evolution of her pregnancy. She's afraid she might experience an obstetric cholestasis just like her older sister did in the past. What is the fundamental symptom of obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Pruritus

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis of pregnancy is associated with increased fetal morbidity and mortality and should be treated actively. The significance attached to pruritus in pregnancy is often minimal, but it is a cardinal symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, which may have no other clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      Rhesus positive mothers should not get anti-D. They have Rhesus antigens and the anti-D would result in maternal blood being bound and removed from her circulation. The danger is to children born to mothers who are rhesus negative. As the mother may develop antibodies against Rhesus positive fetal blood. Therefore if the baby is Rhesus negative then there is no risk of alloimmunisation (sensitisation)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Luteal phase deficiency is characterised by: ...

    Correct

    • Luteal phase deficiency is characterised by:

      Your Answer: Has inadequate luteal progesterone production

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase occurs after the ovulation. Luteal defect means that the luteal phase is shorter than 10 days and women will find it difficult to sustain the pregnancy. There is decreased progesterone, LH and FSH production in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.

      On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.

      Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg

      Explanation:

      For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.

      Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.

      Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal glands? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal glands?

      Your Answer: Stimulate placenta to form oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Correct

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The substructures of the nephrons are mainly located within the cortex. The JGA sits next to the glomerulus in the cortex (click on the magnifying glass of the image to see the arrangement). They play an important role in blood pressure homeostasis as the juxtaglomerular cells produce renin. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle and collecting ducts have sections within both the cortex and medulla

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Listeria Monocytogenes is a cause of congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is food, especially unpasteurised milk. Congenital listeriosis can lead to spontaneous abortions, premature birth and chorioamnionitis. At birth, neonates may present with septicaemia, respiratory distress and inflammatory granulomatosis. The case mortality rate for listeriosis is thought to be between 20-30%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:

      Your Answer: LH and FSH assays

      Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.

      Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the main biochemical buffer in blood? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in blood?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate serves as the main buffer in the blood. Other than this phosphate, ammonia and haemoglobin also act as buffers to some extent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Correct

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.

      Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.

      For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.

      Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the RCOG advice regarding timing of Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin following abortion?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the RCOG advice regarding timing of Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin following abortion?

      Your Answer: Anti-D IgG within 24 hours following abortion

      Correct Answer: Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion

      Explanation:

      All non-sensitised RhD negative women should receive Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.

      On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.

      Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.

      As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
      Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.

      A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
      – Regular uterine contractions
      – Vaginal bleeding
      – A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
      – Abdominal/uterine pain
      – Significant trauma to the abdomen

      Considering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mature teratoma

      Explanation:

      Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A couple both in their late 20s come to you for a review...

    Correct

    • A couple both in their late 20s come to you for a review as they have been trying to fall pregnant for the past 3 years.
      She has a history of fallopian tube surgery following tubal obstruction which was diagnosed laparoscopically. During the surgery, there was evidence of mild endometriosis with uterosacral ligaments involvement. She has amenorrhea and galactorrhoea. On the other hand, his semen specimens have been persistently severely abnormal.

      Which is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: They should use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF,

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment would be to use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF. If hyperprolactinemia was the isolated underlying cause for the infertility, then treatment with a dopamine agonist would be suitable. However, since it is not the sole contributing factor, it is unlikely to be effective in this case. The same reasoning can be applied to the use of danazol to treat any remaining endometriosis.

      Unfortunately, there is no treatment (including gonadotrophin injections) that would improve the severely abnormal semen specimen. The most appropriate option would be to use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) with IVF. Through this method, any remaining tubal issues would be bypassed. Furthermore, it would be useful in mild endometriosis cases and would also treat the amenorrhea resulting from hyperprolactinemia. There is no justification to perform another laparoscopy to either check or treat endometriosis or any remaining tubal obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by?

      Your Answer: Sympathetic Fibres S2,S3,S4

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic Fibres L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The neck of the bladder is surrounded by the internal sphincter. It is supplied by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves of the splanchnic nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation causes the detrusor muscle to contract and the internal urethral sphincter to relax. It Is predominantly by the parasympathetic nerves S2-S4. Relaxation of the bladder is caused by inhibiting the sacral parasympathetic preganglionic neurons and exciting the lumbar sympathetic preganglionic neurons. Remember SYMPATHETIC is for STORAGE and PARASYMPATHETIC is for PEEING.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Correct

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence? ...

    Incorrect

    • Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?

      Your Answer: III

      Correct Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
      1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
      1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
      1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
      2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
      2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
      2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
      3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
      3b: Individual case-control study
      4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
      5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.

      Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.

      Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Repeat the serology in 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Contact tracing

      Explanation:

      The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
      Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
      Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.

      MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.

      As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.

      NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.

      As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 10-24 weeks

      Correct Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks. Although the risk of transmission is lower in early pregnancy, if infection does occur earlier, particularly before 10 weeks, then complications are typically more severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the following organs are involved in oestrogen production except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following organs are involved in oestrogen production except:

      Your Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen can be produced by variety of organs including the corpus leuteum, placenta, adrenal glands and testes. However it is not produced by the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary produces LH and FSH which in turn causes oestrogen secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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