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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. A CT scan has ruled out a primary intracerebral hemorrhage and he is being prepared for thrombolysis. His blood pressure is currently elevated at 190/100 mmHg.
      What would be the most suitable next course of action in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Labetalol 10 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Severe hypertension, defined as blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg, is a condition that prevents the use of thrombolysis. In order to proceed with thrombolysis, it is necessary to lower the patient’s blood pressure to below this level within the designated time frame. Oral medications are unlikely to work quickly enough, so an intravenous antihypertensive agent is required.

      One commonly used agent in these situations is labetalol, which is administered intravenously at a dose of 10 mg over 1-2 minutes. This dose can be repeated if necessary, or an infusion can be set up to deliver a continuous dose of 2-8 mg per minute. Once the blood pressure is reduced to less than 180/105 mmHg, thrombolysis can be safely performed.

      Alternatively, a nitrate infusion, such as Isoket, can be used in patients who cannot tolerate beta-blockers due to contraindications like asthma, heart block, or cardiac failure. This provides an alternative option for lowering blood pressure in these individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a headache that feels like she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a headache that feels like she has been punched in the head. The headache throbs towards the back of the head and is accompanied by nausea. A CT scan of the head is performed, and it confirms a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
      In which of the following areas will blood have accumulated?

      Your Answer: Between the dura mater and arachnoid mater

      Correct Answer: Between the arachnoid mater and pia mater

      Explanation:

      The meninges refer to the protective tissue layers that surround the brain and spinal cord. These layers, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), work together to safeguard the central nervous system structures from physical harm and provide support for the blood vessels in the brain and skull.

      The meninges consist of three distinct layers: the outermost layer called the dura mater, the middle layer known as the arachnoid mater, and the innermost layer called the pia mater.

      There are three types of hemorrhage that involve the meninges. The first is extradural (or epidural) hemorrhage, which occurs when blood accumulates between the dura mater and the skull. The second is subdural hemorrhage, where blood gathers between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. Lastly, subarachnoid hemorrhage happens when blood collects in the subarachnoid space, which is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      135.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A middle-aged man presents with homonymous hemianopia. He is brought to the hospital,...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man presents with homonymous hemianopia. He is brought to the hospital, where a CT head scan is conducted. The CT scan confirms a diagnosis of a stroke.
      Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:

      Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.

      Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.

      Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.

      It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presented to the emergency department with a sudden onset severe occipital headache accompanied by vomiting and neck stiffness. There is no reported history of head injury. Upon clinical examination, his temperature is recorded as 37ºC, respiratory rate at 18 per minute, pulse at 88 beats per minute, and blood pressure at 160/100. It is observed that his right eye is laterally and inferiorly deviated, with a dilated pupil and drooping of the right upper eyelid.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).

      When assessing patients who present with an SAH, there may be focal neurological signs that can indicate the potential location of the aneurysm. Common sites for aneurysms include the bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, the junction of the anterior communicating cerebral artery, and the junction of the posterior communicating artery with the internal carotid artery. If there is complete or partial palsy of the oculomotor nerve, it suggests the rupture of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.

      While hypertension is a risk factor for SAH, a significant increase in blood pressure may occur as a reflex response following the haemorrhage.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a CT head scan, which can detect over 95% of cases if performed within the first 24 hours. The sensitivity of the scan increases to nearly 100% if done within 6 hours of symptom onset. If the CT head scan is negative and there are no contraindications, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed to diagnose SAH. It is recommended to perform the LP at least 12 hours after the onset of headache. It is important to note that approximately 3% of patients with a negative CT scan will be confirmed to have had an SAH after undergoing an LP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1172.3
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  • Question 5 - A 72 year old is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to sudden onset of confusion. The patient's spouse is concerned the sudden decrease in consciousness is due to a hemorrhage as the patient is on blood thinners. Neurological examination reveals flaccid paralysis. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated before CT scan as the patient experiences a respiratory arrest. Which of the following syndromes is this patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Subfalcine herniation

      Correct Answer: Tonsillar herniation

      Explanation:

      Tonsillar herniation occurs when the cerebellar tonsils are pushed through the foramen magnum. This condition is characterized by a decrease in consciousness, respiratory arrest, and flaccid paralysis.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      60.4
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their right forearm and wrist,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their right forearm and wrist, resulting in a peripheral neuropathy. Upon examination, they exhibit a lack of abduction and opposition of the right thumb. However, wrist and finger flexion remain unaffected, although there is noticeable atrophy of the thenar eminence. The patient is able to form a fist adequately. Additionally, there is a loss of sensation over the radial three and a half fingers.
      What specific nerve damage is present in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Median nerve at the elbow

      Correct Answer: Median nerve at the wrist

      Explanation:

      The median nerve originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus and receives contributions from the ventral roots of C5-C7 (lateral cord) and C8 and T1 (medial cord). It serves both motor and sensory functions.

      In terms of motor function, the median nerve innervates the flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, excluding the flexor carpi ulnaris and a portion of the flexor digitorum profundus, which are instead innervated by the ulnar nerve. Additionally, it innervates the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals.

      Regarding sensory function, the median nerve gives rise to the palmar cutaneous branch, which provides innervation to the lateral part of the palm. It also gives rise to the digital cutaneous branch, which innervates the lateral three and a half fingers on the palmar surface of the hand.

      Within the forearm, the median nerve branches into two major branches. The first is the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN), which supplies the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The second is the palmar cutaneous branch, which provides sensory innervation to the skin of the radial palm.

      Differentiating between damage to the median nerve at the elbow and wrist can be done by considering these two branches. Injury at the elbow affects these branches, while injury at the wrist spares them. It is important to note that the palmar cutaneous branch travels superficially to the flexor retinaculum and therefore remains functional in carpal tunnel syndrome. However, it can be damaged by laceration at the wrist.

      A comparison of median nerve lesions at the wrist and elbow is presented below:

      Median nerve at elbow:
      – Motor loss: Weak wrist flexion and abduction, loss of thumb abduction and opposition, loss of flexion of index and middle fingers
      – Sensory loss: Lateral 3 and ½ fingers and nail beds, lateral side of palm
      – Hand deformity: Ulnar deviation of wrist, thenar wasting, papal benediction on flexing fingers

      Median nerve at wrist:
      – Motor loss: Loss of thumb abduction and opposition, wrist and finger flexion intact (due to intact AIN)
      – Sensory loss: Lateral 3 and ½ fingers and nail beds, lateral side of palm (but can be preserved depending upon palmar cutaneous branch)
      – Hand deformity: Thenar wasting, no ulnar deviation of wrist or papal benediction (due to intact AIN)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old man presents with ataxia, left-sided loss of pain and temperature sense...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents with ataxia, left-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face, left-sided paralysis of the facial muscles and right-sided sensory loss to the body. He is also complaining of severe vertigo, nausea and tinnitus. CT and MRI head scans are undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a left-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral medullary syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lateral pontine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Obstruction of the long circumferential branches of the basilar artery leads to the lateral pontine syndrome. This condition is characterized by several symptoms. Firstly, there is ataxia, which is caused by damage to the cerebral peduncles. Additionally, there is ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sense on the face, resulting from damage to CN V. Another symptom is ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face, which occurs due to damage to CN VII. Furthermore, vertigo, nystagmus, tinnitus, deafness, and vomiting are present, all of which are caused by damage to CN VIII. Lastly, there is contralateral sensory loss to the body, which is a result of damage to the spinothalamic tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.3
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman comes in with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her ROSIER...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her ROSIER score is 3. She is noticeably overweight and weighs 90 kg.
      What is the appropriate dosage of alteplase to administer?

      Your Answer: 90mg

      Explanation:

      Alteplase (rt-pA) is recommended for the treatment of acute ischaemic stroke in adults if it is administered as soon as possible within 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms. It is important to exclude intracranial haemorrhage through appropriate imaging techniques before starting the treatment. The initial dose of alteplase is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum dose of 90 mg. This dose should be given intravenously over 60 minutes, with the initial 10% administered by intravenous injection and the remainder by intravenous infusion. In the case of a patient weighing 120 kg, the maximum dose of 90 mg should be administered. For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals over 16 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient and initiate her treatment.
      What condition will she develop if she goes untreated?

      Your Answer: Gerstmann syndrome

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff psychosis

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional features may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.

      The condition is caused by capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These changes can be visualized using MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

      Patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy should receive parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Oral thiamine should be administered after the parenteral therapy.

      It is important to note that in patients with chronic thiamine deficiency, the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine can trigger the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which treatment is most likely responsible for causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      59.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (3/10) 30%
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