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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently.
      Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone.

      What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?

      Your Answer: Right marginal artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus...

    Incorrect

    • Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:

      Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
      2 / 400
      6 / 100
      10 / 25
      14 / 6.25

      Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?

      Your Answer: 4 hours

      Correct Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.

      Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:

      Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial rash and shortness of breath. Her mother reported that, prior to the symptoms, she took Co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) for her present ear infection. She also reported that she had no previous exposure to penicillin or any other related antibiotics.

      Which of the following can help to differentiate between type 1 and type II hypersensitivity reaction in this case?

      Your Answer: Serum mast cell tryptase > 11.5 ng/mL

      Correct Answer: IgE assay specific for amoxycilloyl

      Explanation:

      Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

      Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95–100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

      An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

      RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

      Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:

      Your Answer: Is a cardio-selective beta adrenoceptor antagonist.

      Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

      Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

      They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

      It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?

      Your Answer: Is an antacid

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.

      Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      737.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?

      Your Answer: Alfentanil has a more rapid onset because of its higher lipid solubility

      Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.

      Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.

      Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      114
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and cause membrane hyperpolarization.

      Lorazepam has emerged as the preferred benzodiazepine for acute management of status epilepticus. Lorazepam differs from diazepam in two important respects. It is less lipid-soluble than diazepam, with a distribution half-life of two to three hours versus 15 minutes for diazepam. Therefore, it should have a longer duration of clinical effect. Lorazepam also binds the GABAergic receptor more tightly than diazepam, resulting in a longer duration of action. The anticonvulsant effects of lorazepam last six to 12 hours, and the typical dose ranges from 4 to 8 mg. This agent also has a broad spectrum of efficacy, terminating seizures in 75-80% of cases. Its adverse effects are identical to those of diazepam. Thus, lorazepam also is an effective choice for acute seizure management, with the added possibility of a longer duration of action than diazepam.

      Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that binds to GABA-A receptor site and increase the duration of chloride channel opening. It also blocks glutamic acid neurotransmission, and, at high doses, can block sodium channels. It is considered as the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is an anti-seizure drug that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. It is preferred in prolonged therapy of status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      In cases wherein airway protection is required, thiopentone and propofol are the preferred drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?...

    Incorrect

    • At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?

      Your Answer: 1000 nanomol/L

      Correct Answer: 100 nanomol/L

      Explanation:

      pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:

      So, what power produces the answer?

      pH = – log10 [H+]

      Making [H+] the subject:

      [H+] = 10-pH

      Substituting, [H+] = 10-7

      One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001

      10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001

      100 nanomole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true?

      Your Answer: A confounding factor obscures the relationship between an exposure and an outcome

      Correct Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation

      Explanation:

      Randomisation can be used to provide control over the confounding variables during the design stage of a study however during analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. Since the question asks for the information that is factually incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved.
      Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and middle mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.

      The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Statistical Methods (0/2) 0%
Pathophysiology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
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