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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms consistent with mesenteric...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms consistent with mesenteric ischemia. She is quickly shifted to the operation theatre for an emergency laparotomy.

      On exploration, the segment of the colon from the splenic flexure down to the rectum is ischemic.

      The artery blocked in this scenario arises at what vertebral level from the aorta?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The hindgut is from the distal third of the transverse colon down to the upper one-third of the anal canal. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.

      The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta behind the inferior border of the third part of the duodenum 3–4 cm above the aortic bifurcation, at the third lumbar vertebra level.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and...

    Correct

    • Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and expected level of disease in a particular population?

      Your Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?

      Your Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.

      Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.

      Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.

      The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.

      The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.

      Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.

      Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The population incidence of a disease is best described by? ...

    Correct

    • The population incidence of a disease is best described by?

      Your Answer: The number of new cases of a disease per population in a defined period

      Explanation:

      The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period.

      The prevalence of a disease is the number of cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period describes. It is NOT the number of new cases.

      The number of new cases of a disease only, has no denominator (time period or population) from which to derive an incidence.

      The number of new cases of a disease seeking medical treatment is the incidence of patients seeking medical treatment NOT the incidence of the disease in a population.

      The death rate from a disease is the number of patients dying from the disease in a population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

    Effective dose 95...

    Correct

    • The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

      Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
      Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
      Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.

      Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin

      Explanation:

      The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.

      0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
      The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
      75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
      The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.

      A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).

      It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.

      Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

    What is the...

    Correct

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

      What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?

      Your Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

      A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

      Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

      A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical...

    Incorrect

    • When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?

      Your Answer: A line connecting the anterior superior iliac spines

      Correct Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines

      Explanation:

      The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.

      In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.

      A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.

      A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.

      The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer: 97.50%

      Correct Answer: 95.40%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.

      Properties of the Normal distribution

      symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median

      68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean

      95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean

      99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

      Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
      the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.

      SD = square root (variance)

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.

      Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:

      pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
      PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
      PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
      SaO2: 90%
      Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
      BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)

      Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?

      Your Answer: CSF PCO2

      Correct Answer: CSF pH

      Explanation:

      The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.

      Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.

      It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.

      Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a lump in his groin. Physical examination reveals the lumps increase in size while coughing and reduces in size after lying down flat. Based on his age and examination, a diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia was made.
      Which structures does the bowel pass through in order to be classed as direct inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle

      Explanation:

      A hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias are of two types; Indirect inguinal hernia and Direct inguinal hernia.
      – Indirect inguinal hernia is common at young age commonly due to a patent processes vaginalis and bowel passes through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
      – Direct hernia forms as a result of the weakening of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal more specifically within a region called ‘Hasselbach triangle. It is defined medially by the rectus abdominis muscle, laterally by the epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament.

      Direct and indirect hernias can be differentiated based on their relation to the inferior epigastric artery. Direct inguinal hernia lies medial to it while indirect inguinal hernia lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.

      The femoral ring is the site of the femoral hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/3) 0%
Statistical Methods (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Pathophysiology (0/1) 0%
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