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  • Question 1 - Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process?

      Your Answer: Renal vascular resistance increases when the mean arterial blood pressure falls to between 80 and 100 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion

      Explanation:

      Two mechanisms are responsible for autoregulation of RBF and GFR: one mechanism that responds to changes in arterial pressure and another that responds to changes in [NaCl] in tubular fluid. Both regulate the tone of the afferent arteriole. The pressure-sensitive mechanism, the so-called myogenic mechanism, is related to an intrinsic property of vascular smooth muscle: the tendency to contract when stretched. Accordingly, when arterial pressure rises and the renal afferent arteriole is stretched, the smooth muscle contracts in response. Because the increase in resistance of the arteriole offsets the increase in pressure, RBF, and therefore GFR, remains constant.

      The second mechanism responsible for autoregulation of GFR and RBF is the [NaCl]-dependent mechanism known as tubuloglomerular feedback. This mechanism involves a feedback loop in which a change in GFR leads to alteration in the concentration of NaCl in tubular fluid, which is sensed by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and converted into signals that affect afferent arteriolar resistance and thus the GFR (Fig. 33.19). For example, when the GFR increases and causes [NaCl] in tubular fluid in the loop of Henle to rise, more NaCl enters the macula densa cells in this segment (Fig. 33.20). This leads to an increase in formation and release of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP) by macula densa cells, which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and normalization of GFR. In contrast, when GFR and [NaCl] in tubule fluid decrease, less NaCl enters the macula densa cells, and both ATP and adenosine production and release decline. The fall in [ATP] and [adenosine] results in afferent arteriolar vasodilation, which returns GFR to normal. NO, a vasodilator produced by the macula densa, attenuates tubuloglomerular feedback, whereas angiotensin II enhances tubuloglomerular feedback. Thus the macula densa may release both vasoconstrictors (e.g., ATP and adenosine) and a vasodilator (e.g., NO) that oppose each other’s action at the level of the afferent arteriole. Production plus release of either vasoconstrictors or vasodilators ensures exquisite control over tubuloglomerular feedback.

      Renal autoregulation, thus, reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal sodium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40).

      Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?

      Your Answer: Ideal body weight

      Correct Answer: Lean body weight

      Explanation:

      Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all ‘non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.

      This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.

      A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.

      Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or ‘caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.

      Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were ‘capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.

      Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have...

    Incorrect

    • The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have electrical safety requirements for the protection of hospital staff and patients.
      Of the different classes of electrical equipment listed, which is least likely to cause a patient to suffer a microshock?

      Your Answer: II (BF)

      Correct Answer: II (CF)

      Explanation:

      Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
      The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
      II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
      III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
      Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
      B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
      BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
      CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?

      Your Answer: Greater potency

      Correct Answer: Less biodegradation

      Explanation:

      Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

      Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

      Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

      Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A medical student performed a case control study for her final dissertation. It...

    Incorrect

    • A medical student performed a case control study for her final dissertation. It involved examining marijuana exposure in a group of patients with and without COPD.

      What form of bias is the study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer: Observer bias

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Case control studies in particular are prone to recall bias, people who are suffering from COPD might sometimes relate the ailment to marijuana usage in past and hence contrary to the control group, they are more able to describe to what extent they have been using the drug in the past.

      As recommended, all the doctors should make sure that there practice is based on evidence and thus it is paramount that the doctors learn to appraise the paper in a critical manner i.e. ability to detect any potential source of bias.

      Detection Bias: Outcomes are more looked for in one group than the other.

      Observer Bias: Subjectivity of observers regarding the outcome.

      Publication bias: Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      Recall bias: Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Response Bias: The participants that filled out the response forms containing information that was going to be used for a trial, don’t represent the target population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like to find out his survival time for the condition.

      Which statistical method is used to predict survival rate?

      Your Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator

      Explanation:

      The Weibull distribution are used to describe various types of observed failures of the components. it is used in reliability and survival analysis.

      Regression Analysis is used to measure the relationship between among two or more variable. It determines the effect of independent variables on the dependent variables.

      Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.

      A time series is a collection of observations of well-defined data obtained at regular interval of time.

      Kaplan-Meier estimator is used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. It can be derived from maximum likelihood estimation of hazard function. It is most likely used to measure the fraction of patient’s life for a certain amount of time after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more...

    Incorrect

    • It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more prone to developing gastric cancer. After 30 years of studying people with lower socio economic status, it was found that they did have a greater tendency to develop cancer. As a result of that the authors got to the conclusion that a strong association existed between the two. Later on another study conducted found that people from lower socio economic back grounds also had a tendency to be smokers.


      Which form of potential bias can be associated with this particular study?

      Your Answer: Sampling bias

      Correct Answer: Confounding bias

      Explanation:

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved and is often a result of in efficient recruiting method.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Measurement bias can be characterized by gathering of information in a manner that is distorted.

      When the participants of a research study are recruited from the hospitals rather than the general population, its called Berkson Bias.

      Confounding bias is the major player here because in this case the effects of smoking can be masked behind and can be read as outcomes of lower socio economic status. This extraneous factor (Smoking), distorts the founding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which is correct about normal distribution? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is correct about normal distribution?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation = mean / square root (variance)

      Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Correct

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

    One terabyte is equal...

    Incorrect

    • Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

      One terabyte is equal to which of the following numbers?

      Your Answer: 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

      Correct Answer: 1,000,000,000,000 bytes

      Explanation:

      To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

      1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
      1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
      1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
      1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
      1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance between groups?

      Your Answer: Chi squared test

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What statement about endotoxins is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement about endotoxins is true?

      Your Answer: Elicit an antibody response which may protect the host from future attack

      Correct Answer: Can often survive autoclaving

      Explanation:

      Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharides found in the outer cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria. They are responsible for providing the structure and stability of the cell wall.

      They cannot be destroyed by normal sterilisation as they are heat stable molecules. They require the use of certain sterilant such as superoxide, peroxide and hypochlorite to be neutralised.

      They stimulate strong immune responses, but can only be destroyed partially by specific antibodies. Repeat infections occur as memory T cells cannot be formed.

      It can cause septicaemia and associated symptoms such as fever, shock, hypotension and nausea.

      It activates the alternative complement pathway and the coagulation pathway using secreted cytokines.

      It is not involved in botulism as clostridium botulinum, the responsible organism, secretes a neurotoxic exotoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination. He is a known case of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis. Suspecting mesenteric ischemia, he was thoroughly investigated, and a mesenteric angiography shows ischemia of the left colic flexure.

      Which artery gives off branches that supply this region directly?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening, especially if the small intestine is involved.

      The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
      The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery to supply the following:
      – distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
      – descending colon

      At approximately the left colic flexure (splenic flexure), a transition occurs in the blood supply of the GI tract. The SMA supplies the proximal part to the flexure, and the IMA supplies the part distal to the flexure. This is why the left colic flexure is a watershed area and is prone to ischemia exacerbated by atherosclerotic changes or hypotension. The dominant arterial supply of the splenic flexure is usually from the left colic artery, but it may also get collaterals from the left branch of the middle colic artery.

      The AMA and PMA do not exist.
      The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and has branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas.
      The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.

      If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety...

    Incorrect

    • Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety of sizes.

      When choosing an intravenous or intra-arterial cannula, which of the following measurements is used?

      Your Answer: Internal diameter (mm)

      Correct Answer: Standard wire gauge (SWG)

      Explanation:

      Standard wire gauge cannulas for intravenous and intraarterial use are available (SWG or G). The SWG is a former imperial unit (which requires metric conversion). The cross sectional area of wires is becoming more popular as a size measurement.

      The number of wires that will fit into a standard hole template is referred to as SWG.

      This standard sized hole can accommodate 22 thin wires side by side (each wire the diameter of a 22 gauge cannula)
      In the same hole, 14 thicker wires would fit (each wire the diameter of a 14 gauge cannula)

      While the diameter and thus radius of a parallel sided tube are the most important determinants of fluid flow rate, they are not commonly used to compare cannula sizes.

      The circumference of French gauge (FG) catheters (urinary or chest drains) is measured. Sizes of double lumen tracheal tubes are FG. Internal diameter is used to measure single lumen tubes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon mask ventilation, patient's oxygen saturation level dropped to 90% despite maximal head extension, jaw thrust and two handed mask seal. Intubation was performed twice but failed. Use of bougie also failed to localize the trachea. Oxygen levels continued to drop, but was maintained between 80 and 88% with mask ventilation.

      Which of the following options is the best action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a supraglottic airway

      Explanation:

      A preplanned preinduction strategy includes the consideration of various interventions designed to facilitate intubation should a difficult airway occur. Non-invasive interventions intended to manage a difficult airway include, but are not limited to: (1) awake intubation, (2) video-assisted laryngoscopy, (3) intubating stylets or tube-changers, (4) SGA for ventilation (e.g., LMA, laryngeal tube), (5) SGA for intubation (e.g., ILMA), (6) rigid laryngoscopic blades of varying design and size, (7) fibreoptic-guided intubation, and (8) lighted stylets or light wands.

      Most supraglottic airway devices (SADs) are designed for use during routine anaesthesia, but there are other roles such as airway rescue after failed tracheal intubation, use as a conduit to facilitate tracheal intubation and use by primary responders at cardiac arrest or other out-of-hospital emergencies. Supraglottic airway devices are intrinsically more invasive than use of a facemask for anaesthesia, but less invasive than tracheal intubation. Supraglottic airway devices can usefully be classified as first and second generation SADs and also according to whether they are specifically designed to facilitate tracheal intubation. First generation devices are simply ‘airway tubes’, whereas second generation devices incorporate specific design features to improve safety by protecting against regurgitation and aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The adrenal medulla comprises chromaffin cells (pheochromocytes), which are functionally equivalent to postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They synthesize, store and release the catecholamines noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and adrenaline (epinephrine) into the venous sinusoids.
      The majority of the chromaffin cells synthesize adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between...

    Incorrect

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.

      Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?

      Your Answer: The relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug with time for a single compartment model

      Correct Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple

      Explanation:

      Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).

      All of the other connections are non-linear.

      For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.

      A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.

      A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.

      The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male...

    Correct

    • Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

      Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?

      Your Answer: 1120 mg

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
      It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.

      Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
      16×70 = 1120 mg.

      Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?

      Your Answer: N-methylhistamine

      Correct Answer: Tryptase

      Explanation:

      Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Popliteal lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is the shallow, diamond-shaped depression located in the back of the knee joint.

      The structures that lie within in from superficial to deep are:

      The tibial and common fibular nerve: Most superficial. They arise from the sciatic nerve.
      The popliteal vein
      The popliteal artery: Lies deepest. It arises from the femoral artery

      Boundaries of the popliteal fossa:

      Laterally
      Biceps femoris above, lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris below

      Medially
      Semimembranosus and semitendinosus above, medial head of gastrocnemius below

      Floor
      Popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of knee joint and popliteus muscle

      Roof
      Superficial and deep fascia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:...

    Correct

    • With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood...

    Incorrect

    • A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

      There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

      Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Calcified brachial arteries

      Correct Answer: Reduced aortic compliance

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      83.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the...

    Incorrect

    • An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the emergency department.

      On examination, his blood pressure cannot be recorded. He suffers a stab wound to his chest that has penetrated the left atrium and the artery that supplies it.

      Which artery is most likely damaged in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Left marginal artery

      Correct Answer: Left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left atrium is supplied by the left coronary artery and its major branch the left circumflex.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding metal wires, which of the following is the most important determinant of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding metal wires, which of the following is the most important determinant of their resistance?

      Your Answer: Length

      Correct Answer: Resistivity

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic artery?

      Your Answer: Cystic artery

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic artery

      Explanation:

      The common hepatic artery arises from the celiac artery and has the following branches:
      1. hepatic artery proper that branches into –
      a. cystic artery to supply the gallbladder
      b. left and right hepatic arteries to supply the liver
      2. gastroduodenal artery that branches into
      a. right gastroepiploic artery
      b. superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
      3. right gastric artery

      The pancreatic artery is a branch of the splenic artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is?

      Your Answer: C5

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that contains the femoral triangle. He will undergo explorative surgery.

      Which of the following makes the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.

      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Adductor longus
      Lateral: Sartorius
      Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineus

      The contents include: (medial to lateral)
      Femoral vein
      Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
      Femoral nerve
      Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
      Lateral cutaneous nerve
      Great saphenous vein
      Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (0/3) 0%
Pharmacology (1/6) 17%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/2) 0%
Statistical Methods (1/5) 20%
Clinical Measurement (2/2) 100%
Basic Physics (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (2/7) 29%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Passmed