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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old female from a nursing home presented in the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female from a nursing home presented in the emergency department with complaints of headache, blurred vision and confused state for the last 4 to 5 days. On examination, she has several bruises on her head. Which of the following is the most likely cause behind the confused state of this patient?

      Your Answer: Subdural hematoma

      Explanation:

      Bruises on her head are suggestive of a head injury. Confused state with a headache and blurred vision are due to a subdural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      87.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check whether he had prolonged QT interval, which of the following is the most appropriate method to measure the QT interval in ECG?

      Your Answer: Time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave

      Explanation:

      The QT interval is the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave. It represents the time taken for ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation. The QT interval should be measured in either lead II or V5-6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When considering the anatomical location of intracranial meningiomas, which of the following relations...

    Correct

    • When considering the anatomical location of intracranial meningiomas, which of the following relations is well recognised?

      Your Answer: Parasagittal - spastic paraparesis

      Explanation:

      The localisation of intracranial lesions (based on both history and examination) is crucial. Meningiomas are slow in growth, and its subtle effects are very different from the more aggressive, intrinsic lesions. Olfactory groove lesions affect the sense of smell and may produce ipsilateral optic atrophy. Sphenoid ridge lesions will produce exophthalmos. Chiasmal lesions usually produce bitemporal hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man with hypertension presented with sudden onset right arm weakness which...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with hypertension presented with sudden onset right arm weakness which resolved after 10 hrs. He has had 2 similar episodes during the last 6 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His ECG showed atrial fibrillation and the CT scan of his brain was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      CHAâ‚‚DSâ‚‚-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
      Congestive heart failure – 1 point
      Hypertension – 1 point
      Age >75 years – 2 points
      Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
      Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
      Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
      Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
      Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
      Score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 4, so he needs life-long warfarin to prevent a stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60 old patient with a history of chronic cough was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 old patient with a history of chronic cough was found to have partial ptosis, constricted pupil and loss of hemifacial sweating. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eaton-Lambert syndrome

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner syndrome (oculosympathetic paresis) results from an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by the classic triad of miosis (i.e., constricted pupil), partial ptosis, and loss of hemifacial sweating (i.e., anhidrosis). As this patient presented with chronic cough most probably he has Pancoast tumour (tumour in the apex of the lung, most commonly squamous cell carcinoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      90.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old male presented with pain in the left lumbar region. His abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presented with pain in the left lumbar region. His abdominal X-ray revealed stones in his left kidney. Analysis of one of the stones that he passed in the urine showed that it was composed of uric acid. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this type of renal stone?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Like all diuretics, thiazide diuretics decrease the amount of body fluid. This leads to an increase in the concentration of uric acid in the body; hence the chances of forming uric acid stones.
      Allopurinol is actually a drug used to treat gout, reducing uric acid levels in the body. Therefore, allopurinol would rather decrease the chances of having uric acid stones.
      Primary hyperparathyroidism is not concerned with uric acid stones. It is related to calcium metabolism and hence, calcium stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      77.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old gentleman presents with a 2 year history of involuntary neck movements....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old gentleman presents with a 2 year history of involuntary neck movements. There is no history of trauma. He is on no drugs. There is no relevant family history.
      On examination he has an episodic right torticollis. The rest of his neurological examination is normal. MRI of his cervical spine is normal. The neurologist in the Movement Disorders Clinic has diagnosed cervical dystonia.
      Which of the following treatments will be most beneficial?

      Your Answer: Baclofen

      Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin

      Explanation:

      Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxic protein from Clostridium botulinum that causes flaccid paralysis as it acts by preventing the release of Ach at the neuromuscular joint. It is the first-line treatment for cervical dystonia (torticollis) because the condition is a neurological disorder characterised by unusual muscle contractions of the neck. With the use of Botulinum toxin, the contractions would be released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      78.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old male patient complains of emesis, fatigue, palpitations and weight loss. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient complains of emesis, fatigue, palpitations and weight loss. His blood group is type A. Clinical examination revealed an enlarged liver, ascites and a left supraclavicular lump which is palpable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrophic gastritis

      Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastric carcinoma may present as atypical general symptoms including emesis, fatigue and weight loss. It may also result in anaemia which might be responsible for the palpitations. The left supraclavicular swelling is referring to Virchow’s node, strongly associated with gastric cancer. Ascites and hepatomegaly generally appear late in the course of the disease and Blood group A has been shown to be associated with gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked with MHC class I molecules:

      Your Answer: CD2b

      Correct Answer: CD8

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T cells recognize antigens in the form of short peptide fragments bound to major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecules on the target cell surface.1 Specific engagement of peptide-MHCI (pMHCI) complexes via the clonotypically expressed ?β T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a range of effector functions that play a critical role in protective immunity against intracellular infections and various malignancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Swelling of the finger joints

      Correct Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old male presented with a history of chronic backache and altered sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presented with a history of chronic backache and altered sensation over the lateral side of his right calf and foot. Which of the following nerve roots will most likely be involved in this patient?

      Your Answer: S1-S2

      Correct Answer: L5-S1

      Explanation:

      Lesions in L5-S1 region leads to altered sensation on the lateral side of calf and foot, along with back pain. There might be difficulty in extension of the leg, foot inversion, plantar flexion and toe flexion, as muscles controlling these functions are supplied by S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin.

      On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation.

      Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Arterial blood gas on air:

      pH 7.34
      pCO2 5.4 kPa
      pO2 9.0 kPa

      Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
      – Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      – Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      – Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      – Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
      Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
      Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
      Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)

      If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)

      For ICU patients:
      IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
      IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinolone

      If the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.

      The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The drug of choice for delirium tremens will be? ...

    Incorrect

    • The drug of choice for delirium tremens will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      The drugs of choice for delirium tremens are benzodiazepines such as chlordiazepoxide, diazepam or lorazepam. Chlordiazepoxide is a long acting drug and is the preferred drug, before the other benzodiazepines. Barbiturates are the 2nd drugs of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which radiated backwards...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which radiated backwards between his scapulae. He didn't have difficulty in breathing and the pain wasn't exacerbated by deep inspiration or a change in position. His father had died due to a heart disease when he was small. He also has a cardiac murmur which was never properly investigated. On examination he was tachycardic with a BP of 165/60 mmHg. There was a diastolic murmur at lower left sternal border which is best heard with the patient sitting forward. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is Marfan’s syndrome because of a family history of cardiac death and heart murmurs. A characteristic feature is pain which radiates to the back. A wide pulse pressure and a diastolic heart murmur is suggestive of aortic dissection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals that he has chronic renal failure, for which he receives haemodialysis three times per week. Since one week prior to consultation, he has been on vacation and has missed two dialysis sessions.

      Examination reveals pulmonary oedema. His ECG shows no P waves, broad QRS complexes and peaked T waves.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenously

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely complaining of the effects of hyperkalaemia, due to missing his dialysis sessions. Additionally, because the patient presents with a risk of cardiac arrest (based on pulmonary oedema and ECG findings), the best intervention is to give calcium gluconate that will address the hyperkalaemia as well as improve the cardiac condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 82-year-old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 33-year-old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy. On examination, her BP was 160/100 mmHg. On lab examination her Na+=142 mmol/L, K+=3.0mmol/L. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      In Conn’s syndrome hypokalaemia and hypertension are present due to high levels of aldosterone with normal to high sodium levels. In this disease, the patient presents with hypertension and feelings of tiredness or fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following signs is least suggestive of cervical myelopathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs is least suggestive of cervical myelopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder disturbance

      Explanation:

      Cervical myelopathy is mostly caused by spondylosis of C5-C7. Sphincters are usually not involved. The lower limbs usually are hypertonic with weakness and up going planter reflex. Vibration and proprioception tend to be lost. Biceps jerk is inverted or even absent. Although cervical spondylosis is the most common cause, an intrinsic lesion might give a similar picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal chest pain for 3 hours. On examination his pulse rate was 68 bpm, BP was 100/60 mmHg and JVP was seen 3mm from the sternal notch. Respiratory examination was normal. His ECG showed narrow QRS complexes, ST segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III and aVF and a complete heart block. What is the most immediate treatment from the following answers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chewable aspirin 300 mg

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and bundle of His, conduction abnormalities are more common with inferior MIs. The most immediate drug management is high dose Aspirin. Definite treatment is urgent cardiac revascularization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
      Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields. You are concerned that she may have a prolactinoma.
      Investigations were done and the results are as shown below:

      Hb 12.5 g/dl
      WCC 4.9 x109/l
      PLT 199 x109/l
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 Ù‰mol/l
      Prolactin 1150 mU/l

      MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary microadenoma.

      Which of the following hormones would you expect to be lower than normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas, benign lesions that produce the hormone prolactin, are the most common hormone-secreting pituitary tumours.
      Based on its size, a prolactinoma can be classified as a microprolactinoma (< 10 mm diameter) or a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm diameter). If the prolactinoma is large enough to compress the surrounding normal hormone-secreting pituitary cells, it may result in deficiencies of one or more hormones (e.g., thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], growth hormone [GH], adrenocorticotropic hormone). However, the patient has microadenoma so it is unlikely to cause compression manifestations.
      Hyperprolactinemia inhibits GnRH secretion from the medial basal hypothalamus and LH release from the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 75-year-old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and difficulty in holding her head up, for the past 6 months. She didn't have any significant joint pain. Her creatinine phosphokinase level was very high and ESR was normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an idiopathic inflammatory myopathy characterized by symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, elevated skeletal muscle enzyme levels and characteristic electromyography (EMG) and muscle biopsy findings. Weak neck extensors cause difficulty holding the head up. Pain is not a significant symptom, which differentiates it from arthritic conditions. ESR is elevated in only 50% of patients with polymyositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of joint pains, myalgia, haematuria and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of joint pains, myalgia, haematuria and a facial rash which exacerbates on exposure to sunlight. RFTs show raised urea and creatinine, and there were red cell casts on urine microscopy. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auto antibodies

      Explanation:

      Considering the history and presenting complaints, this patient is most likely suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus, which will be confirmed by testing for auto antibodies like ANA, anti ds DNA, anti histone antibodies etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      COPD is commonly associated with progressive hypoxemia. Oxygen administration reduces mortality rates in patients with advanced COPD because of the favourable effects on pulmonary hemodynamics.

      Long-term oxygen therapy improves survival 2-fold or more in hypoxemic patients with COPD, according to 2 landmark trials, the British Medical Research Council (MRC) study and the US National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute’s Nocturnal Oxygen Therapy Trial (NOTT). Hypoxemia is defined as PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) of less than 55 mm Hg or oxygen saturation of less than 90%. Oxygen was used for 15-19 hours per day.

      Therefore, specialists recommend long-term oxygen therapy for patients with a PaO2 of less than 55 mm Hg, a PaO2 of less than 59 mm Hg with evidence of polycythaemia, or cor pulmonale. Patients should be evaluated after 1-3 months after initiating therapy, because some patients may not require long-term oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old male presents with hoarseness of the voice and breathing difficulties for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with hoarseness of the voice and breathing difficulties for the past 3 months. A chest x-ray, showed a unilateral opacity in hilum. He has no history of smoking. Choose the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of bronchial carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection.
    On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection.
      On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion.
      Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use

      Explanation:

      The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
      It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.

      LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
      Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.

      Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.

      Dosage and uses:
      LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.

      Adverse effects:
      The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
      Less commonly it can cause:
      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
      Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
      Hypoaldosteronism
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency & Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (2/2) 100%
Nervous System (1/3) 33%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
The Skin (0/1) 0%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Immune System (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
Passmed