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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?
Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: CSF analysis
Explanation:This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child with kernicterus?
Your Answer: Dental enamel hypoplasia
Correct Answer: Learning disability
Explanation:Bilirubin encephalopathy (BE), also known as kernicterus is a preventable complication of neonatal jaundice. Bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, geniculate bodies and cranial nerve nuclei, exerting direct neurotoxic effects and causing mass-destruction of neurons by apoptosis and necrosis.The clinical features of this diagnosis have been well described and can be divided into 3 stages:Phase 1 (first few days of life): Decreased alertness, hypotonia, and poor feeding are the typical signs. Obviously, these are quite nonspecific and could easily be indicative of a multitude of neonatal abnormalities. A high index of suspicion of possible BIND at this stage that leads to prompt intervention can halt the progression of the illness, significantly minimizing long-term sequelae. Of note, a seizure is not typically associated with acute bilirubin encephalopathy.Phase 2 (variable onset and duration): Hypertonia of the extensor muscles is a typical sign. Patients present clinically with retrocollis (backward arching of the neck), opisthotonos (backward arching of the back), or both. Infants who progress to this phase develop long-term neurologic deficits. Phase 3 (infants aged >1 wk): Hypotonia is a typical sign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 4
Correct
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A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis
Explanation:The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?
Your Answer: Abdominal trauma
Explanation:Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer: Increase delta P
Explanation:The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?
Your Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case
Explanation:There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?
Your Answer: 0.1 ml/kg 1:10000 adrenaline
Correct Answer: Consider reorientating care
Explanation:The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?
Your Answer: Muscular dystrophy
Correct Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen planus?
Your Answer: Presence of epidermal atrophy
Explanation:Lichen sclerosus is a common chronic skin disorder that most often affects genital and perianal areas. LS typically presents with vulval itching and clinical findings of pallor, epidermal atrophy (cigarette paper wrinkling), purpura, and/or erosions.Lichen sclerosus (LS) and lichen planus (LP) are both immunologically mediated diseases with a preference for the genitalia. The main difference between the two conditions is that LP has a propensity to involve the mucous membranes including the mouth and vagina which are rarely affected in LS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?
Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Explanation:Answer: Oculogyric crisisOculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoid tumours
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient was diagnosed with a fast-growing pituitary adenoma. Magnetic resonance image (MRI) scanning reveals a suprasellar extension. Which structure is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:Cranial nerve II (CN II or optic nerve) runs along the midline of the ventral surface of the brain and conveys visual information from the retina of each eye to the corresponding region of the primary visual cortex. The right half of the visual field of both eyes is processed by the left half of the retina, while the right half of the retina processes the left half of the visual field. These retinal ganglion cells project myelinated axons, carrying CN II sensory afferent fibres, through the optic chiasm, where optic nerve fibres from the nasal half of each retina decussate to the contralateral side of the brain for processing. After passing through the optic chiasm, the optic nerve becomes the optic tract that synapses to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus and subsequently projects optic radiations to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occipital lobe. The optic tract also projects to the superior colliculus, pretectal nuclei, and suprachiasmatic nuclei. This part of the optic pathway serves the important light reflex.Due to the anatomical location of the optic chiasm superior to the pituitary gland, a suprasellar extension of a pituitary macroadenoma will lead to compression of the optic nerve fibres decussating at the optic chiasm. Impingement of these nerves prevents visual information from the temporal visual fields of each eye from reaching the processing centres in the brain, leading to peripheral vision loss
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following do you expect to see?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High voltage T waves in the electrocardiogram
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia presents with high voltage (peaked) T waves on ECG. Other features on ECG include smaller p-waves and wider QRS complexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing an NG tube. A Chest /Abdominal X-ray is performed which shows an NG tube coiled at T3/4 and a gasless abdomen. Which of the following operations is likely to be required?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparotomy and open gastrostomy
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia refers to a congenitally interrupted oesophagus. One or more fistulae may be present between the malformed oesophagus and the trachea. The lack of oesophageal patency prevents swallowing. In addition to preventing normal feeding, this problem may cause infants to aspirate and literally drown in their own saliva, which quickly overflows the upper pouch of the obstructed oesophagus. If a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is present, fluid (either saliva from above or gastric secretions from below) may flow directly into the tracheobronchial tree.The complete absence of gas in the GI tract denotes the absence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF)| however, distal fistulae simply occluded by mucous plugs have been rarely reported.If no distal TEF is present, a gastrostomy may be created. In such cases, the stomach is small, and laparotomy is required. In all cases of oesophageal atresia in which a gastrostomy is created, care should be taken to place it near the lesser curvature to avoid damaging the greater curvature, which can be used in the formation of an oesophageal substitute. When a baby is ventilated with high pressures, the gastrostomy may offer a route of decreased resistance, causing the ventilation gases to flow through the distal fistula and out the gastrostomy site. This condition may complicate the use of ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hypothyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectoderm
Explanation:The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say that he has had frequent breath holding spells which occur almost 4 times per week. Which of the following nutritional deficiency most often results in the breath holding spells like the ones experienced by this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Breath-holding spells are usually caused by either a change in the child’s breathing or a slowing of the heart rate. In some children, breath-holding spells may be related to iron deficiency anaemia, a condition in which the body doesn’t produce a normal number of red blood cells. Conclusion: Not only Iron deficiency anaemia but also iron deficiency alone without anaemia is associated with a risk of high-frequency cyanotic breath holding spells. Iron therapy results in reduction in spells’ frequency which was correlated with increasing ferritin and iron levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A young boy presents with signs of kidney disease. He has a long-standing history of proteinuria and hypocomplementemia which were not responsive to steroid treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis primarily affects children and young adults, with patients presenting with nephrotic or nephritic syndrome or with asymptomatic renal disease. There are 3 types defined by pathologic features. All three types are associated with hypocomplementemia, but they manifest somewhat different mechanisms of complement activation. This type of glomerulonephritis often progresses slowly to end-stage renal disease, and it tends to recur after renal transplantation, especially type II.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents
Explanation:6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 24
Incorrect
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All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Prednisone is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis if there is no initial response to the anticholinesterase medications. Pyridostigmine can make the symptoms of myasthenia gravis worse if used in the initial stages of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl was accompanied by her mother to the hospital due to a change in speech, which is now an indistinct nasal speech. She is always tired by day, has restless sleep and even snores at night. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT surgeon
Explanation:Adenoid tissue sometimes swell as a result of fighting off the infection as germs are trapped in the adenoids. Adenoid enlargement is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of frequent watery stools and vomiting. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and is refusing to drink in the emergency department.What would be the most appropriate course of action for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube
Explanation:The most appropriate step in this patient would be to admit the patient for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube.Enteral rehydration:Oral rehydration is the most preferred way of rehydrating children. If a child is not tolerating small-frequent-feeds, then nasogastric rehydration is an underused next best step. The fluid can be run through a continuous pump so that it is better tolerated. Note:Intravenous fluids are effective but can have profound effects on the serum electrolyte balance if not monitored closely. Most children will tolerate fluids in an emergency department, but failure to take fluids orally is not an indication for intravenous therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial complex seizure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Induction by hyperventilation
Explanation:Absence seizures are induced by over breathing or hyperventilation, while the other features suggest partial seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last night and prevented him from sleeping. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. On examination, he has a fever. A bulging tympanic membrane with a visible fluid level is seen on otoscopy. You suspect a diagnosis of acute suppurative otitis media. Tensor tympani is a muscle that is found in the middle ear. What is the nerve supplying the tensor tympani?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve
Explanation:The nerve supply to the tensor tympani is the mandibular nerve.The mandibular nerve is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibres.Tensor tympani is a muscle that lies in a bony canal just superior to the pharyngotympanic tube. It originates from the cartilaginous portion of the pharyngotympanic tube, the bony canal in which it sits, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It inserts into the upper part of the handle of the malleus. When contracted, it pulls the handle of the malleus medially. This action increases the tension across the tympanic membrane, reducing the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear. This dampens loud noises or noises produced by chewing. Tensor tympani is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.Other options:- The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. This nerve has two components, a vestibular division that carries balance information, and a cochlear division that carries hearing information.- The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve. It has a wide range of functions. It carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, as well as sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal and auricle. It carries parasympathetic fibres that supply the parotid gland. It also supplies the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus and supplies the secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland.- The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibres.- The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve. It supplies the muscles of facial expression, as well as stylohyoid, the posterior belly of digastric, and stapedius (the only other muscle associated with the middle ear). It carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, parts of the auricle and the retro-auricular area. It provides secretomotor fibres which supply to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland (via chorda tympani nerve), nasal glands and lacrimal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who describe what seems to be an episode of generalized tonic-clonic seizures, after she came home from an all-night party around 6 am. Her father has epilepsy and one of her cousins sometimes has episodes of blank spells. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Explanation:In people with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, symptoms can be brought on by: -Sleep deprivation-Psychological stress-Alcohol and drug use-Noncompliance of medication-Flickering lights such as strobe lights -Menses-Time of day – usually mornings
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia
Explanation:Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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