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Question 1
Incorrect
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Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or excretion of hydrogen ions from the distal tubule. Which of the following is a key difference in clinical presentation of these two types of renal tubular acidosis?
Your Answer: Urinary pH in Type I can be lowered below pH 5.3 after ammonium chloride administration
Correct Answer: Renal stone formation
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes calcium and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria. This precipitates calcium compounds in the kidney, predisposing it to renal stone formation. On the other hand, proximal renal tubular acidosis is characterised by an impairment in bicarbonate resorption. Both types lead to metabolic acidosis and electrolyte imbalances including potassium depletion. Children often present with failure to thrive. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA (type 2) administering an ammonium chloride load will decrease the urinary pH whereas in distal disease (type 1), the urine pH will not decrease below 5.3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6 year old boy with a history of pharyngitis 10 days ago, presents with periorbital oedema. You perform a urine dipstick test which shows 1+ for protein and 3+ for blood. Family history is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The child has a history of pharyngitis followed 10 days later by signs of glomerulonephritis. In this particular case, it is most probably a post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis which accounts for 80% of paediatric cases of glomerulonephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and stiffness in her joints. On examination, she has +1 oedema, slightly swollen metacarpophalangeal joints and ulceration of her buccal mucosa. Her BP is 145/95. Serum creatinine is 92 x 10^12/l. Urinalysis is significant for blood and protein, both +3. High titres of anti-dsDNA are detected in her serum. Which of the following histological changes would be observed in the renal tissue?
Your Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with deposits of IgG, IgM and C3
Explanation:Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a distinct histologic form of glomerulonephritis common to various types of systemic inflammatory diseases, including autoimmune disorders (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus [SLE]), vasculitis syndromes (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis), and infectious processes. In DPGN, more than 50% of the glomeruli (diffuse) show an increase in mesangial, epithelial, endothelial (proliferative), and inflammatory cells (i.e., glomerulonephritis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 5 week old boy with pyloric stenosis is vomiting forcefully. Which of the following findings would you expect to be in his blood results?
Your Answer: Plasma pH > 8.0
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Progressive vomiting due to pyloric stenosis leads to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic, metabolic alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to void a full volume bladder. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Horseshoe kidney
Correct Answer: Duplex kidney with ectopic ureter
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be a duplex kidney with an ectopic ureter inserting below the bladder neck. Rationale: The Weigert-Myer law states that the upper moiety ureter inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety ureter. Other options:- Horseshoe kidney would display as a single pelvic kidney on an ultrasound scan.- Ureterocele would be a cystic lesion within the bladder or may prolapse at birth. – Continence should not be affected by polycystic kidney disease. – The overactive bladder would cause frequency and urgency, neither of which is mentioned in the history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a concern that he is the shortest in his class, and his voice has not 'broken' yet. A thorough examination reveals that his sexual development is within the normal range, and he is reassured that puberty occurs at different times for everyone. Which of the following cells in the testes secrete testosterone?
Your Answer: Leydig cells
Explanation:The cells in the testes that secrete testosterone are the Leydig cells.Other cells in testes include:- Spermatogonia: These are undifferentiated male germ cells which undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.- Sertoli cells: They are a part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes, cells are activated by FSH and nourish developing sperm cells.- Myoid: They are squamous contractile cells which generate peristaltic waves, they surround the basement membrane of testes.- Fibroblasts: Cells which synthesise collagen and the extracellular matrix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer: Glycosuria
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?
Your Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds
Explanation:In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including| low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidaemia. The renal biopsy is normal. What would you expect to see on electron microscopy?
Your Answer: Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
Explanation:The child has nephrotic syndrome which is most commonly caused by minimal change nephropathy in this age group. The condition presents with fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells under the microscope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?
Your Answer: Hypovolaemia
Explanation:The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy was discharged from hospital after an episode of acute testicular pain.Considering he had an anatomical anomaly involving the processus vaginalis, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Based on the presented clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for the patient would be testicular torsion.Rationale:The gubernaculum is the structure responsible for aiding the descent of the testicles from the abdomen into the scrotum. The processus vaginalis precedes the descent of the testes and then undergoes closure. Abnormalities such as the persistence of a patent processus vaginalis, known as bell clapper deformity, predispose to testicular torsion.Other options:- Varicocele: Nutcracker syndrome occurs where the left renal vein becomes compressed in between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. Since the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein, this results in a varicocele. – Epididymitis and mumps orchitis are differentials for acute testicular pain but are not due to a defect in the processus vaginalis. – An incarcerated inguinal hernia presents mainly with signs of bowel obstruction which are not mentioned in the clinical scenario.The descent of testes:- Until the end of foetal life, the testicles are located within the abdominal cavity. – They are initially located on the posterior abdominal wall on a level with the upper lumbar vertebrae (L2). – Attached to the inferior aspect of the testis is the gubernaculum testis which extends caudally to the inguinal region, through the canal and down to the superficial skin. – It is interesting to note that both the testis and the gubernaculum are extra-peritoneal.- As the foetus grows, the gubernaculum becomes progressively shorter. It carries the peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall (the processus vaginalis). As the processus vaginalis descends the testis is guided by the gubernaculum down the posterior abdominal wall and the back of the processus vaginalis into the scrotum.- By the third month of foetal life the testes are located in the iliac fossae, by the seventh they lie at the level of the deep inguinal ring.Usually, the processus vaginalis closes after birth but may persist predisposing to indirect hernias. On the other hand, a partial closure may result in the development of cysts on the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer: Prepubertal boys
Correct Answer: New-born girls
Explanation:Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency with severe testicular pain and is diagnosed with suspected testicular torsion. He is scheduled for surgical exploration. The surgeon makes an incision on the skin and then the dartos muscle. Which of the following tissue layers will be incised next?
Your Answer: Cremasteric fascia
Correct Answer: External spermatic fascia
Explanation:Coverings of the spermatic cord:Spermatic cord is covered by three concentric layers of fasciae, derived from the layers the of anterior abdominal wall. Developmentally, each covering is acquired as the processus vaginalis descends into the scrotum through the layers of the abdominal wall. The layers are:External spermatic fascia: It is derived from the external oblique muscle. It attaches to the margins of superficial inguinal ring.Cremasteric fascia: It is derived from the internal oblique muscle. It covers the cremaster muscle.Internal spermatic fascia: It is derived from the fascia transversalis (fascia covering the transversus abdominis muscle). It is attached to the margins of the deep inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following blood results: Na=135 mmol/l K=2.3 mmol/lUrea=2.0 mmol/lCreatinine 30 µmol/lP=0.8 mmol/lBicarbonate=17 mmol/lCa=2.5 mmol/lAdditionally, urinalysis reveals 1+ glucose and 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fanconi tubular syndrome
Explanation:Fanconi tubular syndrome is characterised by malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances commonly absorbed by the proximal tubule. Hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is usually present. Also, urinalysis reveals an increased fractional excretion of glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 18
Correct
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Proteinuria is NOT a recognized feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Landau-Kleffner syndrome
Explanation:Proteinuria refers to an increased amount of protein excretion in urine, which should be greater than 100mg/m2 per day on a single spot urine collection. The limit is even more relaxed for infants and neonates. Proteinuria is a prominent manifestation of cystinosis, acute tubular necrosis, Fanconi syndrome, and celiac disease. Landau-Kleffner syndrome is a rare childhood convulsive disorder, associated with acquired aphasia and auditory verbal agnosia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus
Explanation:The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother with complaints of an acute onset of oliguria and gross haematuria. On examination, she was found to have pedal oedema and a blood pressure of 164/112 mmHg. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most characteristic finding on urine microscopy?
Your Answer: Red blood cell casts
Explanation:Among the options provided, the most characteristic finding that can be expected in his patient’s urine microscopy is RBC casts. Red cell casts are a characteristic feature of acute nephrotic syndrome. Other options:- Hyaline casts may be seen in normal urine, particularly after exercise. – Coarse granular casts occur in glomerular and tubular disease. – Tubular cell casts may be seen in patients with acute tubular necrosis. – The presence of 10 or more white blood cells/mm3 is abnormal and indicates an inflammatory reaction, most commonly due to infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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