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  • Question 1 - A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff...

    Incorrect

    • A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff after the torniquet is inflated.

      Which nerve was most probably 'missed' by the local anaesthetic?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Intercostobrachial nerve

      Explanation:

      The area described in the question is supplied by the intercostobrachial nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the portions of the axilla, tail of the breast, lateral chest wall and medial side of the arm.

      It is a common for it to be ‘missed’ during administration of local anaesthesia because of its very superficial anatomic course. It may be anesthetized by giving an analgesia from the upper border of the biceps at the anterior axillary fold, to the margin of the triceps by the axillary floor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      65.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.

    He has chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.

      He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a limited exercise tolerance. He agrees to the procedure being performed with an interscalene brachial plexus block.

      Which of the following neurological complications puts this patient at the greatest risk?

      Your Answer: Cervical nerve root block

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve block

      Explanation:

      An ipsilateral phrenic nerve block will result from a successful interscalene block (ISB).

      The phrenic nerve is the diaphragm’s sole motor supply, and ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis affects up to 100% of patients who receive ISBs. Phrenic nerve palsy is usually well tolerated and goes unnoticed by healthy people. However, forced vital capacity decreases by approximately 25%, which can produce ventilatory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve, requiring assisted ventilation.

      Vocal cord palsy occurs when the recurrent laryngeal nerve is inadvertently blocked, causing hoarseness and possibly acute respiratory insufficiency. Unless bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy occurs, which can cause severe laryngeal obstruction, this complication is usually of little consequence.

      ISB can also cause cranial nerve X and XII palsy (Tapia’s syndrome). One-sided cord paralysis, aphonia, and the patient’s tongue deviating toward the block’s side are all symptoms.

      When a local anaesthetic spreads to the stellate ganglion and its cervical sympathetic nerves, Horner’s syndrome can develop. Ptosis of the eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis of the face are all symptoms. Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may not indicate that the brachial plexus is sufficiently blocked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following closely estimates the interstitial oncotic pressure acting on a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following closely estimates the interstitial oncotic pressure acting on a pulmonary capillary?

      Your Answer: 17 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The starling forces operate to maintain a homeostatic flow across the pulmonary capillary bed.

      The outward driving force comprises of the capillary hydrostatic pressure (13 mmHg), negative interstitial fluid pressure (zero to slightly negative), and interstitial colloid osmotic pressure (17 mmHg). The inward driving force is controlled by the plasma colloid osmotic pressure (25 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of a stroke. A CT angiogram is performed for diagnosis, which displays narrowing in the artery that supplies the right common carotid. Which of the following artery is the cause of stroke in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ascending aorta

      Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic artery

      Explanation:

      The arch of aorta gives rise to three main branches:
      1. Brachiocephalic artery
      2. Left common carotid artery
      3. Left subclavian artery

      The brachiocephalic artery then gives rise to the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery.

      The right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk posterior to the sternoclavicular joint.

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the abdominal aorta.
      The ascending aorta supplies the coronary arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery...

    Incorrect

    • One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.

      The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?

      Your Answer: Frontal nerve

      Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
      1. Lacrimal nerve
      2. Frontal nerve
      3. Superior ophthalmic vein
      4. Trochlear nerve
      5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      6. Nasociliary nerve*
      7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      8. Abducent nerve*
      9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.

      The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.

      The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of action of gabapentin?

      Your Answer: Interaction with voltage dependant calcium channels

      Correct Answer: Modulation of voltage dependent calcium channels and NMDA receptor transmission

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin is an amino acid-like molecules that was originally synthesized as an analogue of GABA but is now known not to act through GABA mechanisms. It is used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.

      Despite its close structural resemblance to GABA, gabapentin does not act through effects on GABA receptors or any other mechanism related to GABA-mediated neurotransmission. Rather gabapentin binds avidly to ?2?, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels. Moreover, it binds to NMDA receptor to modulate its transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      218.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Bacterial folate metabolism inhibition

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?

      Your Answer: Four

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.

      There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:

      1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
      Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.

      2. The internal and external mammary pathway
      internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.

      3. The lateral thoracic pathway
      Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.

      4. The vertebral pathway
      Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment...

    Incorrect

    • Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.

      Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.

      Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered...

    Incorrect

    • Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.

      Why is this the best route of administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism

      Explanation:

      Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.

      An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.

      There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.

      GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.

      The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (1/2) 50%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
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