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  • Question 1 - A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?

      Your Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam

      Explanation:

      Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      95
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born...

    Correct

    • A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born to a mother who had not booked at the hospital. Her notes are not available and she does not speak English. However, her partner has managed to communicate that Zika virus had been confirmed in pregnancy. The midwife wants to know if it is safe for the mother to breastfeed the baby in the meantime.What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Encourage breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Possible Zika virus infections have been identified in breastfeeding babies, but Zika virus transmission through breast milk has not been confirmed. Additionally, we do not yet know the long-term effects of Zika virus on young infants infected after birth. Because current evidence suggests that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of Zika virus spreading through breast milk, CDC continues to encourage mothers to breastfeed, even if they were infected or lived in or travelled to an area with risk of Zika.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      188.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot...

    Correct

    • An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes...

    Incorrect

    • Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?

      Your Answer: Hepatic sinusoids

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following gross motor skills would an 18-month-old boy have acquired,...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following gross motor skills would an 18-month-old boy have acquired, assuming that his developmental milestones are normal?

      Your Answer: Intentionally kicking a ball

      Correct Answer: Carrying toys whilst walking

      Explanation:

      Among the provided options, we would expect a normally developing 18-month-old child to be able to carry toys while walking.At 18 months, a normally developing child will show the following gross motor abilities:- walks with the feet slightly apart- runs carefully with the head held high- pushes and pulls objects around the floor- walks upstairs if the hand is held- kneels on a flat surface without support- carry toys while walking.Other options:- Intentionally kicking a ball is a skill typically acquired by 2.5 years, not 18 months.- Jumping with two feet together from a small step is usually acquired by 2.5 years, not 18 months.- Propelling a tricycle forwards by pushing with the feet on the floor is a milestone generally acquired by 2 years, not 18 months.- Throwing a small ball overhand without falling is a milestone for children aged 2 years, not 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      78.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Tetanus Ig + tetanus vaccine

      Correct Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Cleansing and debridement is paramount in dealing with tetanus-prone wounds (severe crushing injuries, piercing wounds, blisters and burns are outstanding examples, particularly if contaminated with dirt, grass or other debris).Prophylaxis then is relatively easy in persons who have been actively immunized by toxoid injections. For them, a “booster” injection is indicated. There is experimental evidence that antibiotics of the tetracycline group, given soon after injury, may have prophylactic effect against tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared three months ago. They are symmetrically distributed and more profound on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees. The papules are present on the trunk as well but are less remarkable. She doesn’t have it anywhere else on her body and seems to be in a good health. The itchiness results in the girl to often scratching and popping the fluid-filled blisters that are present. There is no family history of atopy or other skin conditions. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: A moderately potent topical steroid should be used

      Correct Answer: Coeliac antibodies should be measured

      Explanation:

      This is the clinical picture of dermatitis herpetiformis associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. To establish the diagnosis, you should measure the coeliac antibodies. Darrier’s sign (where the skin urticates when it is stroked) is positive in urticaria pigmentosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      107.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left sternal edge. Which one of the following statements about examination techniques is correct?

      Your Answer: Chest radiography is very helpful in the diagnosis of neonatal cardiac disease

      Correct Answer: Feeling femoral pulses is mandatory

      Explanation:

      Heart murmurs are common in healthy infants, children, and adolescents. Although most are not pathologic, a murmur may be the sole manifestation of serious heart disease. Historical elements that suggest pathology include family history of sudden cardiac death or congenital heart disease, in utero exposure to certain medications or alcohol, maternal diabetes mellitus, history of rheumatic fever or Kawasaki disease, and certain genetic disorders. Physical examination should focus on vital signs| age-appropriate exercise capacity| respiratory or gastrointestinal manifestations of congestive heart failure| and a thorough cardiovascular examination, including features of the murmur, assessment of peripheral perfusion, and auscultation over the heart valves. Red flags that increase the likelihood of a pathologic murmur include a holosystolic or diastolic murmur, grade 3 or higher murmur, harsh quality, an abnormal S2, maximal murmur intensity at the upper left sternal border, a systolic click, or increased intensity when the patient stands. Electrocardiography and chest radiography rarely assist in the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following causes macrocephaly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes macrocephaly?

      Your Answer: Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      172.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?

      Your Answer: No repetitive babble by 8 months of age

      Correct Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness

      Explanation:

      In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      81.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old boy is identified as having a Meckel's diverticulum. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is identified as having a Meckel's diverticulum. Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine. It is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct (also called the vitellointestinal duct) and contains ectopic ileal, gastric or pancreatic mucosa.Rule of 2’s- occurs in 2% of the population- it is located 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal valve- it is 2 inches long- it is 2 times more common in men- there are 2 tissue types involvedIt is typically asymptomatic. Symptomatic presentation indicates inflammation of the diverticulum. The symptoms include:- Abdominal pain mimicking appendicitis- Rectal bleeding- Intestinal obstruction: secondary to an omphalomesenteric band (most commonly), volvulus and intussusceptionManagement:Surgical removal if the neck of the diverticulum is narrow or symptomatic. Surgical options are excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted...

    Correct

    • A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago. All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Congenital TB symptoms typically develop during the second or third week of life and include poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, and irritability. Other symptoms include fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions.Signs of congenital TB include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure stopped spontaneously after 5 minutes. There was no preceding aura. His parents recall that he had a fever for the past three days that resolved after taking paracetamol. On examination, he was found to be febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, and throat examination revealed bilateral exudative tonsillitis. He has previously been treated for febrile seizures, once at the age of 16 months, subsequently at three years of age, and again at 5 years. Detailed family history revealed that his mother also suffered from repeated febrile seizures when she was young. His growth and development are up to age, and he is an above-average student at school. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Febrile seizure plus

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be febrile seizure plus syndrome.Rationale:All of the answers are possible epileptic conditions that this 8-year-old may have. However, the background history of febrile seizure together with a family history of febrile seizures, in a boy who is growing well, with no developmental delay, make febrile seizures plus the most appropriate differential diagnosis for this patient.Other options:- Epilepsy with myoclonic absences are often challenging to treat and may continue into adulthood. There is a male predominance (70%). At presentation, approximately half of cases have a learning disability. An absence seizure is common in this diagnosis and usually occurs daily.- Juvenile absence epilepsy may present with initial generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy followed by absences after that. They are also seen with a background of febrile seizure, and the peak age of presentation is usually at eight years old. Given the current history and lack of absences, this diagnosis is least likely.- Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy usually presents with a myoclonic seizure, although the presentation maybe with a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. It occurs more frequently. Background history of febrile fit may be present in 5-10% of the cases.- Temporal lobe epilepsy is usually associated with aura, and that is not seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      141.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a...

    Correct

    • A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a high likelihood of cystic fibrosis. This diagnosis is associated with a higher risk of developing which of the following?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a life-threatening disorder that causes the build up of thick mucus in the lungs, digestive tract, and other areas of the body. It is a hereditary autosomal-recessive disease caused by mutations of the CFTR gene. Cystic fibrosis eventually results in bronchiectasis which is defined as a permanent dilatation and obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 8 year old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is 28 kb/m2 and he's been found to have glycosuria, which resolved after his recovery. Which investigation is necessary to perform as part of the follow-up?

      Your Answer: Random blood glucose concentration

      Correct Answer: Fasting blood glucose concentration

      Explanation:

      The boy has an increased BMI which implies he is overweight. Possible trauma to his pancreas might have led to a diabetes-like condition, induced by damage to the beta cells. Fasting blood glucose should be measured as a follow-up strategy to see if the damage is reversible or irreversible and to conclude if the glycosuria is related to his metabolic profile or to his accident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Surfactant reduces the surface tension at the air/liquid interface in the lung. Which...

    Correct

    • Surfactant reduces the surface tension at the air/liquid interface in the lung. Which of the following cells produce surfactant in the lung parenchyma?

      Your Answer: Type II pneumocyte

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted by the epithelial type II cells into the alveolar space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      181.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true?

      Your Answer: Should be obtained as part of the overall consent to the study

      Explanation:

      Randomization is one of the ethical protocols for research work, involving unbiased sample selection. Consent is required before undertaking any research and is taken for the complete research work at once. No separate consent is required for the process of randomization. The consent should explain each and every aspect of the study, including details about the process of randomization. Only particular study designs, like Zelen design, permit the avoidance of consent to randomization but these studies have their setbacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      73.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)?

      Your Answer: Osseous bone lesions

      Explanation:

      Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria to confirm the presence of neurofibromatosis, type 1. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      168.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the following represent a possible state and consequence for such a child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness

      Explanation:

      Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins is likely in most people with Cystic Fibrosis (CF).Factors that may contribute to fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies in CF include:- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption as a consequence of pancreatic insufficiency and bile salt deficiency.- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption due to suboptimal PERT or poor adherence to PERT especially with vitamin replacement therapy.- Poor dietary intake due to anorexia or poor dietary sources of vitamins.- Poor adherence to prescribed fat-soluble vitamin supplementation.- Inappropriate vitamin supplementation regimens.- Increased utilisation and reduced bioavailability.- Short gut syndrome due to previous bowel resection.- CF-related liver disease.- Chronic antibiotic use.Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the eye (dark adaptation), skin, respiratory and immune systems. Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness and can proceed to xerophthalmia in CF.Severe vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant reducing the effects of free radicals produced by infection and chronic inflammation, thus helping to protect cell membranes from oxidative damage.Vitamin E deficiency has been associated with haemolytic anaemia in infants and may cause ataxia, neuromuscular degeneration and compromised cognitive function. Oxidative stress is enhanced in CF due to chronic respiratory inflammation.Vitamin K is important for blood coagulation and bone health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix develops a swinging temperature of 38.8 C while on admission. What is next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for an ultrasound scan to look for intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Children who present with ruptured appendices are at increased risk of intra abdominal collections or abscesses. A swinging temperature is the first clue in indicating an intra abdominal abscess in a patient who had recently undergone surgery for a perforated appendix. The best course of action is therefore to get an ultrasound of the fluid collection before proceeding to rule out any other complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis

      Explanation:

      Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis. Group B Streptococcus (GBS), also known as Streptococcus agalactiae, is best known as a cause of postpartum infection and as the most common cause of neonatal sepsis. The GBS organism colonizes the vagina, GI tract, and the upper respiratory tract of healthy humans. GBS infection is almost always associated with underlying abnormalities. In elderly persons aged 70 years or older, GBS infection is strongly linked with congestive heart failure and being bedridden.Penicillin remains the drug of choice for group B streptococcal infection but resistance may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for patients with Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome typically have small testes that produce a reduced amount of testosterone (primary testicular insufficiency). Testosterone is the hormone that directs male sexual development before birth and during puberty. Without treatment, the shortage of testosterone can lead to delayed or incomplete puberty, breast enlargement (gynecomastia), decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, and a reduced amount of facial and body hair. As a result of the small testes and decreased hormone production, affected males are not generally infertile but may benefit from assisted reproductive technologies. Some affected individuals also have differences in their genitalia, including undescended testes (cryptorchidism), the opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis (hypospadias), or an unusually small penis (micropenis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal loss in the first trimester is common

      Explanation:

      Turners syndrome is a chromosomal syndrome affecting the development of females. In this condition, all or part of the X chromosome gets deleted, producing the Karyotype 45 XO or 45XO/46XX. Spontaneous foetal loss is common in the first trimester, but foetuses which survive are born small for date, and may have lymphedema, and poor feeding in the neonatal period. These patients face numerous medical and developmental problems throughout their lifetimes including growth and puberty failure due to premature ovarian failure/ hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. However spontaneous puberty can be seen in up to 20% of females with Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6–9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely| gastric and pancreatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child may have stopped growing. Which of the following hormones is chiefly responsible for cessation of growth and epiphyseal fusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Many factors are related with the stimulation of bone formation and growth, the pubertal growth spurt, epiphyseal senescence, and fusion, including nutritional, cellular, paracrine, and endocrine factors. An important cellular factor in these processes is the differentiation and aging of chondrocytes in the growth plate. Important paracrine factors include the many molecular pathways involved in chondrocyte differentiation, vascularization, and ossification. Oestrogen and the GH-IGF-I axis are important endocrine factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic children have reduced immunity to the herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum is a form of Kaposi varicelliform eruption, characterized by extensive vesicular skin eruptions that arise from a pre-existing skin condition, usually atopic dermatitis. The most common pathogen is the herpes simplex virus type 1, which has a higher propensity of attacking the epidermis already damaged by atopic dermatitis. The incubation period of the illness is 5-14 days. The eruption is initially small, monomorphic, dome-shaped papulovesicles that rupture to form tiny punched-out ulcers. It is diagnosed by taking viral swabs for culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae

      Explanation:

      Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 31 - A 1 year old child presents with barking cough, coryza and shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old child presents with barking cough, coryza and shortness of breath. What will be the most likely outcome associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Natural resolution

      Explanation:

      Croup is the most common aetiology for hoarseness, cough, and onset of acute stridor in febrile children. Symptoms of coryza may be absent, mild, or marked. The vast majority of children with croup recover without consequences or sequelae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 32 - A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 33 - What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation| they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion| it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 34 - A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.'...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 35 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 36 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 37 - A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch nodules of the iris. What is the most likely sign to observe on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary freckles

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a common autosomal dominant disease. The Lisch nodule represents one of the most common NF1 ocular manifestations.NF1 is caused by a genetic mutation which can cause tumours to grow on nerve endings| these cutaneous neurofibromas are benign tumours which grow on the skin, often first appearing during the hormonal changes that occur in teenage years. They vary in size and can appear anywhere on the body. The number of neurofibromas present differs greatly between individuals and over a lifetime Café au lait spots (coffee coloured birthmarks) are often the first and most common sign of NF1, and these are often found at birth and are usually evident by 2 years of age.Other features of NF1 can include Lisch nodules of the iris (small pigmentation in the iris which causes no disturbance to vision), skin-fold freckling (freckling/pigmentation in the groyne and armpits), plexiform neurofibromas (or sub cutaneous neurofibromas) which are diffuse tumours that grow along a nerve and are found in at least 25 % of people with NF1, optic gliomas (tumour of the optic nerve), and skeletal complications including pseudarthrosis and scoliosis. Macrocephaly (large head size) is also common, and short stature is found in around a third of people with NF1. Rare complications include a risk of malignancy, organs being compromised by neurofibromas, seizures, and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 38 - What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection...

    Incorrect

    • What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space indicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ASD with pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PH) is noted in 9 to 35 % of patient with a secundum type ASD. The haemodynamic definition of PH is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of ≥25 mmHg at rest by means of right heart catheterization. In ASD, The findings on physical examination depend on the degree of left-to-right shunt and its hemodynamic consequences, which, in turn, depends on the size of the defect, the diastolic properties of both ventricles, and the relative resistance of the pulmonary and systemic circulations.Blood flow across the atrial septal defect (ASD) does not cause a murmur at the site of the shunt because no substantial pressure gradient exists between the atria. However, ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts results in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border.Patients with large left-to-right shunts often have a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve.ASD is an acyanotic lesion. Thus, the patient should be normally saturated. In the rare case of severe pulmonary arterial hypertension, atrial shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome) may occur, leading to cyanosis and clubbing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 39 - A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference

      Explanation:

      The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 40 - A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future

      Explanation:

      The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 41 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 42 - An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular rash. She had a previous history of flu-like illness and sore throat diagnosed as tonsillitis for which she was prescribed Amoxicillin. On examination, she has widespread cervical lymphadenopathy and petechiae on her palate. What is the most likely underlying pathogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein Barr Virus

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely underlying pathogen is the Epstein Barr virus (EBV).An Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection most commonly results in upper respiratory tract symptoms with fever and sore throat. Lymphadenopathy is frequently palpable on examination. Splenomegaly may also occur, and for this reason, patients diagnosed with glandular fever should be advised to avoid contact sports for one month following diagnosis. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is also associated with EBV infection. The vast majority of patients with active EBV infection will develop a widespread rash if given amoxicillin, therefore, phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is recommended for the treatment of a suspected bacterial throat infection to prevent this complication occurring for individuals who have EBV infection.Other options:- Coronavirus: This is one of the causes of the common cold and is frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, the presenting features are more suggestive of an EBV infection.- Group A Streptococcus: Streptococci are classified into two main groups| alpha-haemolytic and beta-haemolytic. Group A Streptococcus belongs to the beta-haemolytic group. Group A streptococcal infection is a common cause of bacterial tonsillitis. It is possible that the child, in this case, had streptococcal tonsillitis and has had a drug reaction to the amoxicillin. However her age, flu-like symptoms and petechiae on her palate all point to an EBV infection and amoxicillin resulting in a rash.- Parainfluenza: Parainfluenza viruses are one of many causes of the common cold and can cause pharyngitis. They are the leading cause of viral croup.- Rhinovirus: Rhinoviruses are one of many causes of the common cold and are frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, are other factors suggesting EBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 43 - A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe...

    Incorrect

    • A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rh incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome- Congenital contractural arachnodactylyOther rare syndromes include:- Loeys-Dietz syndrome- Antley-Bixler syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Lujan-Frinz syndrome- Haim-Munk syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Spondylocostal dysostosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 45 - A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which...

    Incorrect

    • A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye. Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopiaExamination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 46 - A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds

      Explanation:

      In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including| low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 47 - An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 48 - Mature human milk contains how many calories? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mature human milk contains how many calories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70kcal/100ml

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition changes with the progressive age of the infant. Breastmilk produced for a preterm baby often has a higher caloric content than breastmilk for a term baby. After the production of colostrum in the first days of life, the milk continues to mature. by week 4-6 milk can be considered fully mature. The average calories found in mature breastmilk are about 70kcal/100ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 49 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 50 - A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 51 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH

      Explanation:

      While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 52 - A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily| the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 53 - A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with complaints of poor feeding and tachypnoea a week after experiencing a coryzal illness. His cardiac examination is unremarkable apart from a third heart sound being present. His chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and bilateral interstitial shadowing. Blood investigations, renal function, and anti-streptolysin O test (ASCOT) are all within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie myocarditis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis based on the clinical presentation is myocarditis secondary to Coxsackie virus infection.Myocarditis is an important cause of acquired heart failure. The other infective causes of myocarditis are influenza and adenoviruses, and bacterial causes as seen with Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease). Rheumatic fever is unlikely if the ASO titres are within normal limits. While pancarditis may occur as part of Kawasaki disease| the patient is unlikely to present in failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 54 - A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 55 - Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nissl substance

      Explanation:

      Nissl body is a neuron-specific cellular structure. It is composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and fine granules. The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains free ribosomes, and are the hub of protein synthesis. When these substances are exposed to a cresyl violet solution, they show selective-staining by turning purple-blue. In pathologic processes, they may undergo chromatolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 56 - A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation

      Explanation:

      A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 57 - A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures for the past week. Prior to this, he has had multiple admissions for the same reason and has been on anti-epileptic drugs since the age of 11 months with poor control. He was born of non-consanguineous parents with an uneventful birth history. There is no history of seizures in other family members. On examination, he has multiple hyperpigmented papules over the nasolabial region suggestive of adenoma sebaceum. A full body examination revealed a total of 5 hypopigmented ash leaf macules over the lower limbs along with a shagreen patch over the lateral aspect of the left buttock. The mode of inheritance of the boy's condition has a pattern similar to that of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type 1

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis for this patient would be tuberous sclerosis which is an autosomal dominant condition.Among the options provided, only Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is inherited by an autosomal dominant pattern. Other options:- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is an example of an imprinting disorder and results from abnormalities of inheritance or methylation of chromosome 11p15.- Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition.- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an example of an X-linked recessive condition.- Hypophosphataemic (Vitamin D resistant) rickets is an X-linked dominant condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 58 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually appear in the evening. The episodes started 6 months ago and the pain presents on both sides of the head. He perceives it as a “tight” feeling. His overall health is normal and he admits to be able to continue his daily activities regardless of the pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Tension headache presents with pain that is pressing or tightening in quality, mild or moderate, and located bilaterally. It usually does not get worse with activities and may last from minutes to weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 59 - A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 60 - An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his partner whose HIV status is not known. He is concerned about his risk of acquiring HIV. He is feeling well and shows no symptoms. The physician offers him a post exposure prophylaxis, which consists of 3 different antiviral drugs. Two of these drugs act by which of the following mechanisms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of viral reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Recommended regimens3 NRTI (e.g., zidovudine, lamivudine, abacavir) OR2 NRTI (e.g., lamivudine + abacavir) AND1 NNRTI (e.g., efavirenz) OR1 PI (e.g., lopinavir) OR1 INI (e.g., raltegravir)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Child Development (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/3) 33%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Passmed