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Question 1
Correct
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What is the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women?
Your Answer: Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG)
Explanation:Pregnant women who are already on antiretroviral therapy (ART) should continue their current regimen until their first viral load result is available. This is because it is important to ensure that the current regimen is effectively suppressing the virus before making any changes.
If the viral load result comes back as less than 50 copies/ml, then the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women is Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG). This combination is recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) as it is highly effective in suppressing the virus and has a good safety profile for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the maximum daily dose of Isoniazid (INH) for TB preventive therapy (TPT) in infants?
Your Answer: 300 mg
Explanation:Isoniazid (INH) is a medication commonly used for the prevention and treatment of tuberculosis (TB). When it comes to TB preventive therapy (TPT) in infants, the maximum daily dose of INH is typically 300 mg. This dosage is based on the weight and age of the infant, as well as the severity of the TB infection. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment as recommended by a healthcare provider to ensure the effectiveness of the medication and to minimize the risk of side effects. Overdosing on INH can lead to serious health complications, so it is crucial to adhere to the prescribed dosage guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the preferred regimen for women of childbearing potential who are not actively trying to conceive, according to the guidelines?
Your Answer: Tenofovir (TDF) 300 mg + Lamivudine (3TC) 300 mg + DTG 50 mg (TLD)
Explanation:The preferred regimen for women of childbearing potential who are not actively trying to conceive is TLD (tenofovir, lamivudine, dolutegravir) because it is considered safe and effective for both the woman and any potential fetus in case of an unplanned pregnancy. TLD has a low risk of teratogenicity and is generally well-tolerated, making it a suitable option for women who may become pregnant. Additionally, dolutegravir has been shown to have a high barrier to resistance and is recommended as a first-line treatment for HIV.
Other regimens, such as EFV (efavirenz) or LPV/r (lopinavir/ritonavir), may have potential risks during pregnancy or may not be as effective in preventing transmission of HIV to the fetus. Therefore, TLD is the preferred choice for women of childbearing potential who are not actively trying to conceive according to the guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Regarding hepatitis B, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Antivirals are indicated for acute hepatitis B infection.
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection is indicated by the persistence of HBsAg for more than 6 months.
Explanation:Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver and can lead to both acute and chronic disease. Chronic hepatitis B infection is indicated by the persistence of HBsAg (hepatitis B surface antigen) for more than 6 months. This means that the virus is still present in the body and the person is at risk for long-term liver damage.
Hepatitis B vaccination is now part of routine childhood immunization schedules, given at 2, 3, and 4 months of age. It is also given to babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers at birth, four weeks, and 12 months old. This vaccination helps protect against the virus and prevent the development of hepatitis B infection.
There is no specific treatment for acute hepatitis B infection, as it is usually self-limiting and resolves on its own. However, antiviral medications may be considered for those with chronic hepatitis B infection, as they can help reduce the risk of liver damage and liver cancer in the long term.
Overall, it is important to get vaccinated against hepatitis B, especially for children and individuals at risk of exposure to the virus, and to seek medical advice for appropriate management of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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For a term neonate from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg, what is the correct ART regimen doses?
Your Answer: Zidovudine (AZT) 4 mg/kg/dose twice daily, Lamivudine (3TC) 6 mg/kg/dose twice daily, and Nevirapine (NVP) administered as 3 mg/kg/dose twice daily.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:For term neonates from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg, the ART regimen consists of Zidovudine (AZT) 4 mg/kg/dose twice daily, Lamivudine (3TC) 2 mg/kg/dose twice daily, and Nevirapine (NVP) administered as 6 mg/kg/dose twice daily. These specific dosages are tailored to the neonate’s weight and age to effectively manage HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the first step in initiating treatment of a newly diagnosed HIV patient in a primary care setting?
Your Answer: Obtain a detailed patient history and perform a physical examination.
Correct Answer: Follow the NDOH 2020 guidelines for treatment initiation.
Explanation:Steps to manage a patient in primary care:
- Confirm the Diagnosis:
- HIV Testing: Ensure that the HIV diagnosis is confirmed through appropriate testing, typically with two different types of HIV tests to avoid false positives.
- Baseline Assessment:
- Medical History and Physical Examination: Obtain a detailed medical history, including any symptoms, previous illnesses, and risk factors. Conduct a thorough physical examination.
- Baseline Laboratory Tests: These should include:
- CD4 Count: To assess the patient’s immune status.
- Viral Load: To determine the level of HIV in the blood.
- Complete Blood Count (CBC): To check for anemia, leukopenia, or thrombocytopenia.
- Liver and Kidney Function Tests: To evaluate the patient’s overall health and potential contraindications for certain medications.
- Screening for Opportunistic Infections: Tests for tuberculosis, hepatitis B and C, and sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
- Counseling and Education:
- HIV Education: Provide the patient with information about HIV, its transmission, and the importance of adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART).
- Treatment Expectations: Discuss the benefits and potential side effects of ART.
- Adherence Counseling: Emphasize the importance of taking ART consistently and the impact of adherence on treatment success.
- Disclosure and Support: Offer counseling on the importance of disclosing their HIV status to sexual partners and provide support options.
Once these steps have been taken, one can start initiating treatment.
- Initiate Antiretroviral Therapy (ART):
- Selection of ART Regimen: Follow the national guidelines (NDOH 2020 guidelines for treatment initiation), typically involving a combination of three antiretroviral drugs.
- First-Line Regimen: Common first-line regimens in South Africa may include a combination of Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG).
- Confirm the Diagnosis:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 7
Correct
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What action should be taken if a client was well on their first-line regimen, and side-effects were not the reason for stopping ART?
Your Answer: Restart their original regimen they were taking at the time of interruption
Explanation:When a client is well on their first-line regimen and side-effects are not the reason for stopping ART, it is important to restart their original regimen. This is because the client was previously responding well to this regimen and there is no indication that it was not effective. By restarting the original regimen, the client can continue to benefit from the treatment that was working for them.
Performing a viral load test after three months on ART is also important in this situation. This test will help to determine if the client’s viral load is suppressed and if the original regimen is still effective. If the viral load is not suppressed, then it may be necessary to consider switching to a different first-line regimen.
Switching to a second-line regimen or discontinuing ART altogether should not be the first course of action in this scenario. It is important to first try restarting the original regimen and monitoring the client’s response before considering more drastic measures.
Overall, the best course of action in this situation is to restart the original regimen, perform a viral load test after three months, and then make any necessary adjustments based on the results of the test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 8
Correct
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A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which facultative anaerobic bacteria is most likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is a common infection in women that is caused by an overgrowth of atypical bacteria in the vagina. The most common causative agent of bacterial vaginosis is Gardnerella vaginalis, which is a facultative anaerobic bacteria. This means that Gardnerella vaginalis can survive in both oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environments.
When a woman presents with symptoms of bacterial vaginosis, such as foul-smelling vaginal discharge, Gardnerella vaginalis is the most likely culprit. Other symptoms of bacterial vaginosis may include itching, burning, and irritation in the vaginal area.
In diagnosing bacterial vaginosis, a healthcare provider may take a swab of the vaginal discharge for microscopy. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered in bacteria, are often seen under the microscope in cases of bacterial vaginosis.
It is important to differentiate bacterial vaginosis from other sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Treponema pallidum. These organisms have different characteristics and require different treatment approaches.
In conclusion, when a 24-year-old woman presents with foul-smelling vaginal discharge, Gardnerella vaginalis is the most likely cause, and bacterial vaginosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time
Your Answer: Epidemic
Correct Answer: Sero-Prevalence
Explanation:Sero-prevalence refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who have detectable antibodies for a specific infection at a specific point in time. This can be determined through serological testing, which looks for the presence of specific antibodies in the blood.
Seroconversion, on the other hand, is the process by which an individual develops detectable antibodies for a specific infection. This typically occurs after exposure to the infectious agent and can be detected through blood tests.
In the context of a pandemic or epidemic, sero-prevalence and seroconversion are important factors to consider in understanding the spread and impact of the disease. By monitoring sero-prevalence, public health officials can track the level of immunity within a population and make informed decisions about control measures. Seroconversion can also help identify individuals who have been infected with the disease, even if they were asymptomatic, and contribute to a better understanding of the disease transmission dynamics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is a common side effect of Benzathine penicillin G administration?
Your Answer: Injection site pain and swelling
Explanation:Benzathine penicillin G is a type of antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections. One of the common side effects of this medication is injection site pain and swelling. This occurs because the medication is administered via injection, which can cause discomfort and inflammation at the site of injection.
Nausea and vomiting, rash and itching, renal failure, and anaphylaxis are also potential side effects of Benzathine penicillin G administration, but they are less common than injection site pain and swelling. Nausea and vomiting may occur due to the medication’s effects on the gastrointestinal system, while rash and itching may be a sign of an allergic reaction. Renal failure is a rare but serious side effect that can occur in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.
Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential side effects of Benzathine penicillin G and to seek medical help if any concerning symptoms occur after administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher mortality in pregnant than non-pregnant females?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Hepatitis E is the correct answer for this question because it is known to have a much higher mortality rate in pregnant females compared to non-pregnant females. This is especially true in third world countries where access to proper medical care and sanitation may be limited. Hepatitis E is transmitted through contaminated water or food, making pregnant women more susceptible to the virus due to their weakened immune systems. In contrast, Hepatitis A, B, and C do not typically have as high of a mortality rate in pregnant women. Hepatitis E is a serious concern for pregnant women in developing countries and highlights the importance of access to clean water and proper healthcare during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the most effective strategy available for primarily preventing cervical cancer?
Your Answer: HPV vaccination
Explanation:Cervical cancer is primarily caused by persistent infection with high-risk strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16 and 18. The most effective strategy for preventing cervical cancer is therefore vaccination against these specific HPV types. The HPV vaccine is highly effective at preventing infection with these strains of the virus, which in turn significantly reduces the risk of developing cervical cancer.
Regular exercise, healthy eating habits, cervical cancer screening, and smoking cessation are all important factors in overall health and can contribute to reducing the risk of developing cervical cancer. However, the most direct and effective method of prevention is through HPV vaccination. By targeting the root cause of the majority of cervical cancer cases, vaccination offers the best chance of preventing the disease before it even has a chance to develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following a sexual intercourse with an unknown man. Which of the following can be used topically for this presentation?
Your Answer: Acyclovir
Explanation:The 25-year-old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers that are painful following sexual intercourse with an unknown man. This presentation is highly suggestive of a Herpes Simplex infection, which is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause painful genital ulcers.
Among the options provided, Acyclovir is the most appropriate choice for topical treatment in this case. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is commonly used to treat herpes infections. When applied topically, Acyclovir can help to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms associated with genital herpes, including pain and discomfort from the ulcers.
Amantadine, Ritonavir, Trifluridine, and Foscarnet are not typically used for the treatment of genital herpes. Amantadine is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza A, Ritonavir is a medication used to treat HIV, Trifluridine is an antiviral medication used to treat eye infections caused by herpes viruses, and Foscarnet is an antiviral medication used to treat certain types of herpes infections in immunocompromised patients.
In conclusion, for the presentation of multiple small genital ulcers following sexual intercourse with an unknown partner, topical Acyclovir would be the most appropriate choice for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection affects how many pregnancies?
Your Answer: 1 in 10
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a common viral infection that can be passed from mother to baby during pregnancy. It is estimated that CMV affects about 1 in 150 pregnancies. Of those pregnancies affected by CMV, about 30% will transmit the virus to the fetus. And of those fetuses that are infected with CMV, about 30% will show symptoms of the infection.
Therefore, out of 200 pregnancies, 1 will be affected by CMV. Out of those affected pregnancies, 30% will transmit the virus to the fetus, resulting in about 0.3 fetuses being infected. And out of those infected fetuses, about 30% will show symptoms of the infection, resulting in about 0.09 fetuses being affected.
So, the overall likelihood of a fetus being affected by congenital CMV infection is about 1 in 1500 pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?
Your Answer: Prophylactic immunoglobulins should be given to pregnant women if their IgM anti-toxoplasma antibodies detected
Correct Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS
Explanation:Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by the Toxoplasma gondii parasite. It can be transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food or water, handling cat litter, or from mother to fetus during pregnancy.
The correct statement regarding toxoplasmosis is that it can present with fits in patients with AIDS. This is because individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS, are more susceptible to developing symptoms of toxoplasmosis, including seizures or fits.
Infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is actually very harmful to the fetus, as it can lead to serious complications such as intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus, and blindness. Prophylactic immunoglobulins should be given to pregnant women if their IgM anti-toxoplasma antibodies are detected to help prevent transmission to the fetus.
Toxoplasmosis is usually acquired through ingestion of contaminated food or water, not through respiration. Raw eggs are not a common source of infection for toxoplasmosis, as it is typically associated with cat feces or raw/undercooked meat.
Overall, toxoplasmosis can have serious consequences, especially for pregnant women and individuals with weakened immune systems. It is important to take precautions to prevent infection and seek medical treatment if symptoms develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT listed as an antenatal risk factor for referral to a community health worker (CHW)?
Your Answer: Any maternal problem that arose during delivery or post-delivery
Correct Answer: Having a previous history of depression or anxiety
Explanation:The question is asking which of the listed options is NOT considered an antenatal risk factor for referral to a community health worker (CHW).
Teenage pregnancy, low birth weight baby, any maternal problem during or post-delivery, and substance use (tobacco, drugs, alcohol) are all commonly recognized antenatal risk factors that may warrant referral to a CHW for additional support and care.
Having a previous history of depression or anxiety is not specifically mentioned as an antenatal risk factor for referral to a CHW in the text. While mental health issues can certainly impact pregnancy and should be addressed, they may not always be included in the initial list of risk factors for referral to a CHW.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Having a previous history of depression or anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 17
Correct
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According to the guidelines, how should clinicians manage a persistent non-suppressed viral load in clients on TLD for at least 2 years?
Your Answer: Provide enhanced adherence counseling and consider resistance testing if adherence is confirmed to be above 80%
Explanation:When a client on TLD (tenofovir/lamivudine/dolutegravir) for at least 2 years has a persistent non-suppressed viral load, it is important for clinicians to address this issue promptly. The first step should be to provide enhanced adherence counseling (EAC) to ensure the client is taking their medication as prescribed. If adherence is confirmed to be above 80%, resistance testing may be considered to determine if there is any drug resistance that is contributing to the lack of viral suppression.
Switching to a non-DTG-containing regimen without further tests is not recommended as it may not address the underlying issue causing the non-suppressed viral load. Discontinuing ART treatment entirely is also not recommended as it can lead to a resurgence of the virus and potential harm to the client’s health. Increasing the dosage of TLD or switching to a regimen containing only NRTIs may not be effective in achieving viral suppression if there is underlying drug resistance.
Therefore, the best course of action is to provide EAC and consider resistance testing if adherence is confirmed to be above 80%. This approach allows clinicians to address potential adherence issues and identify any drug resistance that may be contributing to the non-suppressed viral load, leading to more effective management of the client’s HIV treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 18
Correct
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A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
Tests revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
Urine Protein 2+
Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?Your Answer: CD4 count
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy
HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 23-year-old has a known diagnosis of HIV. Blood is sent to the laboratory for tests.
AIDS be diagnosed at a CD4 counts below?Your Answer: 200 cells/mm3
Explanation:HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system, specifically the CD4 cells (T cells) which are crucial in fighting off infections. As the virus progresses, the CD4 count decreases, making the individual more susceptible to infections and other complications.
AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is diagnosed when the CD4 count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This is a critical point where the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is at high risk for opportunistic infections and other complications.
Treatment with antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4 count drops below 350 cells/mm3, as this helps to suppress the virus and prevent further damage to the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the approach for managing clients on TLD who have never failed a previous ART regimen and have a viral load ≥ 1000 c/mL?
Your Answer: Enhanced adherence support without resistance testing as a rule
Explanation:For clients on TLD who have never failed a previous ART regimen and have a viral load ≥ 1000 c/mL, the approach of providing enhanced adherence support without resistance testing as a rule is based on the fact that the TLD regimen contains dolutegravir (DTG), which has a high genetic barrier to resistance. This means that even in cases where the viral load is elevated, there is a lower likelihood of developing resistance to DTG compared to other antiretroviral drugs.
By providing enhanced adherence support, healthcare providers can work with the client to address any barriers to adherence and ensure that the medication is being taken consistently and correctly. This approach allows for the possibility of achieving viral suppression without the need for resistance testing or immediate switching to a third-line regimen.
In cases where adherence support alone is not sufficient to achieve viral suppression, resistance testing may be considered to guide the selection of an appropriate alternative regimen. However, the initial approach of focusing on adherence support is a reasonable first step given the high genetic barrier of DTG and the potential for successful viral suppression with improved adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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