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  • Question 1 - Which of the following conditions is procoagulant? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is procoagulant?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is a genetic mutation of one of the clotting factors in the blood, Factor V. This mutation makes Factor V resistant to inactivation by activated Protein C, which normally helps to regulate clot formation. As a result, individuals with Factor V Leiden are at increased risk of developing abnormal blood clots (thrombophilia), making it a procoagulant condition.

      The other conditions listed are associated with bleeding tendencies rather than increased clotting:

      • Afibrinogenemia: A rare genetic disorder where there is a complete lack of fibrinogen, leading to bleeding problems.
      • Hemophilia: A group of inherited bleeding disorders where blood does not clot properly due to the lack of sufficient blood-clotting proteins (factors VIII or IX).
      • Hypothrombinemia: A condition characterized by low levels of prothrombin, leading to increased bleeding.
      • Christmas disease (Hemophilia B): A form of hemophilia caused by a deficiency of factor IX, resulting in a bleeding tendency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Absorption of protein antigens i.e. bacterial and viral proteins takes place in the:...

    Incorrect

    • Absorption of protein antigens i.e. bacterial and viral proteins takes place in the:

      Your Answer: Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

      Correct Answer: Microfold cells (m cells) of the intestine

      Explanation:

      M cells are specialized epithelial cells. They have a high capacity of transcytosis of microorganisms and macromolecules. They rapidly uptake antigens and present them to immune cells associated with the gut. In contrast to absorptive enterocytes, M cells do not exert direct defence mechanisms to antigens and pathogens in the intestinal cavity. Crypts of Lieberkühn are located mainly in the small intestine and large intestine and the main function is to replenish epithelial cells and to secrete intestinal enzymatic juice as well as mucous. Brunner’s glands empty into intestinal glands and their main function is to secrete mucin and to form a protective mucus layer on the duodenal epithelial cells to protect it from acidic chyme coming from the stomach. Islets of Langerhans are located in the pancreas and secrets insulin mainly. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue plays a role in inducing immune response after presentation of antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Where is the lower border of the liver usually found? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the lower border of the liver usually found?

      Your Answer: 10th rib anterior axillary line on right

      Explanation:

      Assessment of liver margins is important clinically to determine the size of the liver and is done via percussion during the physical examination. The liver typically extends from the fifth intercostal space or 6th rib to the right costal margin in the midclavicular line and the 10th rib on anterior axillary line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following enzymes is mainly responsible for the hydrolysis of polysaccharide...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following enzymes is mainly responsible for the hydrolysis of polysaccharide 1:6a linkages?

      Your Answer: Maltase

      Correct Answer: Isomaltase

      Explanation:

      Isomaltase is mainly responsible for hydrolysis of 1:6α linkages. Along with maltase and sucrase, it also breaks down maltotriose and maltose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer: Sexual transmission

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      The virus is transmitted by exposure to infectious blood or body fluids. Infection around the time of birth or from contact with other people’s blood during childhood is the most frequent method by which hepatitis B is acquired in areas where the disease is common. In areas where the disease is rare, intravenous drug use and sexual intercourse are the most frequent routes of infection. Perinatal transmission is the most common and without intervention, a mother who is positive for HBsAg has a 20% risk of passing the infection to her offspring at the time of birth. This risk is as high as 90% if the mother is also positive for HBeAg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by: ...

    Correct

    • Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by:

      Your Answer: Annulus fibrosus

      Explanation:

      The annulus fibrosus disconnects the syncytium complex. The atria are rapidly activated however the activation peters out when the insulating layer-the annulus fibrosus-is reached.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • The cell membrane:

      Your Answer: Is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of amphipathic lipids with embedded proteins. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. It is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules. The entire membrane is held together via non-covalent interaction of hydrophobic tails, however the structure is quite fluid and not fixed rigidly in place. Membranes are typically 7.5–10 nm in thickness and typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer: Epinephrine secreting cells

      Explanation:

      Chromaffin cells, also known as pheochromocytes, are cells located in the adrenal medulla which specialize in the synthesis, storage, and secretion of catecholamines: 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine is released into the bloodstream. For this reason, they are considered to be neuroendocrine cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase are found in which part...

    Correct

    • The cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase are found in which part of the stomach?

      Your Answer: Body and fundus

      Explanation:

      Stomach can be divided in to different regions. Cardia, fundus, body, antrum and pylorus from proximal end to distal end respectively. Cells that secret the inactive form of pepsin or pepsinogen are chief cells and are abundant in the body (corpus) and the fundus region of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?

      Your Answer: CN X

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

      Your Answer: A, D, E, K

      Explanation:

      Vitamins are classified as either fat soluble (vitamins A, D, E and K) or water soluble (vitamins B and C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - When observing a JVP, which of the following would lead to prominent v...

    Incorrect

    • When observing a JVP, which of the following would lead to prominent v waves?

      Your Answer: Cardiac Tamponade

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The v wave corresponds to Venous filling when the tricuspid valve is closed and venous pressure increases from venous return. In Tricuspid regurgitation there is additional blood from the regurgitant flow and thus this leads to a more prominent V wave.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Non-disjunction can result in aneuploidy i.e. abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. It results due to uneven division of chromosomes in the meiosis 1 or 2 phase. All the above mentioned examples are of non-disjunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the...

    Correct

    • Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

      Your Answer: Phospholamban

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Renin is secreted by which of the following cells? ...

    Correct

    • Renin is secreted by which of the following cells?

      Your Answer: Juxtaglomerular cells

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular cells are cells in the kidney that synthesize, store, and secrete the enzyme renin. They are specialized smooth muscle cells mainly in the walls of the afferent arterioles, and some in the efferent arterioles, that deliver blood to the glomerulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer: It binds e2f and stops the cell cycle at the g2 phase

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Vagotomy leads to the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Vagotomy leads to the following:

      Your Answer: Dysfunction of antegrade neurons

      Correct Answer: Irregular and chaotic peristalsis

      Explanation:

      The Vagus nerve is primarily responsible for autonomic regulation involved in heart, lung and gastrointestinal function. The gastric branches supply the stomach. The right branch joins the celiac plexus and supplies the intestines. Vagotomy involves cutting of the vagus nerve or its branches which is a now-obsolete therapy that was performed for peptic ulcer disease. Vagotomy causes a decrease in peristalsis and a change in the emptying patterns of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the following cells: ...

    Correct

    • Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the following cells:

      Your Answer: T cells, b cells and natural killer cells

      Explanation:

      T Cells, B Cells and NK Cells (and all other Innate lymphoid cells) are unique to the lymphocyte family, but dendritic cells are not. Dendritic cells of identical appearance but different markers are spread throughout the body, and come from either lymphoid and myeloid lineages.

      Myeloid stem cells lead to myeloblasts, which evolve into macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following prevents auto-digestion of the stomach by gastric secretions: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following prevents auto-digestion of the stomach by gastric secretions:

      Your Answer: Trefoil peptides and mucus- bicarbonate layer.

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin, a protein digesting enzyme. Bombesin is a peptide which stimulates gastrin secreting cells in the stomach increasing production of gastric acid. Ecl or enterochromaffin cells are neuroendocrine cells that aid in the production of gastric acid via the release of histamine. Oxyntic cells are also known as parietal cells and are the main cells secreting gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl). Gastric acid and pepsin are harmful agents for the gastric mucosa and can result in autodigestion. It is therefore protected by several agents including bicarbonate which neutralizes the acidity of gastric acid while Trefoil peptides are a component of gastric mucosa that form a gel like layer in the gastric epithelium protecting it from harmful agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The end- diastolic ventricular volume is about? ...

    Correct

    • The end- diastolic ventricular volume is about?

      Your Answer: 130 ml

      Explanation:

      The end diastolic volume in a healthy individual is about 130 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Gitelman syndrome is an autosomal recessive kidney disorder characterized by hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis with hypocalciuria, and hypomagnesemia. In contrast to patients with Gordon’s syndrome, those suffering from Gitelman’s syndrome are generally normotensive or hypotensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The endothelium of the sinusoids has the following important function: ...

    Correct

    • The endothelium of the sinusoids has the following important function:

      Your Answer: Highly fenestrated, large subendothelial spaces, many macrophages

      Explanation:

      Substances absorbed in the intestines reach the liver via the portal vein and contain toxic substances that needs to be detoxified in hepatocytes. Thus, hepatic sinusoids are fenestrated and contain large spaces which allows passage of substances freely. These fenestrations are rich in Kupffer cells which are macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi,...

    Correct

    • All of the following features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi, EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic naevi are skin tumours produced by melanocytes. They usually present in childhood but increase during puberty. The mnemonic A-B-C-D, is used by institutions to assess for suspicion of malignancy. The letters stand for asymmetry, border, colour, and diameter. If a mole starts changing in size, colour, shape or, especially, if the border of a mole develops ragged edges or becomes larger than a pencil eraser, it would be an appropriate time to consult with a physician. Other warning signs include if it begins to crust over, bleed, itch, or become inflamed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following associations is false? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following associations is false?

      Your Answer: Mandibular nerve – foramen lacerum

      Explanation:

      – The olfactory nerves pass through the cribriform plate- The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen rotundum- The facial nerve passes through the stylomastoid foramen- The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve pass through the foramen ovale- The glossopharyngeal nerve passes through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?

      Your Answer: Reticulospinal

      Explanation:

      Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Visual pathways - Choose the true statement: ...

    Correct

    • Visual pathways - Choose the true statement:

      Your Answer: The lateral geniculate nucleus, magnocellular & parvocellular pathways project to the primary visual cortex

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is made by the decussation of optic fibers on the nasal side. The magnocellular pathway carries signals for detection of movement. The parvocellular pathway carries cells for detection of shape, size, colour and clarity. The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is the relay centre in the thalamus for he visual pathway. It has layers of magnocellular cells and parvocellular cells that are interleaved with layers of koniocellular cells. The LGN is the main central connection for the optic nerve to the occipital lobe, particularly the primary visual cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?

      Your Answer: Nail dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:

      Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Café-au-lait spots are hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular.

      Causes include:

      • Neurofibromatosis type I
      • McCune–Albright syndrome
      • Legius syndrome
      • Tuberous sclerosis
      • Fanconi anaemia
      • Idiopathic
      • Ataxia-telangiectasia
      • Basal cell nevus syndrome
      • Benign congenital skin lesion
      • Bloom syndrome
      • Chediak-Higashi syndrome
      • Congenital nevus
      • Gaucher disease
      • Hunter syndrome
      • Maffucci syndrome
      • Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
      • Noonan syndrome
      • Pulmonary Stenosis
      • Silver–Russell syndrome
      • Watson syndrome
      • Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (3/3) 100%
Medicine (23/30) 77%
Gastrointestinal (2/6) 33%
Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/4) 75%
Connective Tissue (2/2) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed