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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?

      Your Answer: Right occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of...

    Incorrect

    • Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of plasma. Which microbial product is responsible for this activity?

      Your Answer: Plasmin

      Correct Answer: Coagulase

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most pathogenic species and is implicated in a variety of infections.  S. aureus can be identified due to its production of coagulase. The staphylococcal enzyme coagulase will cause inoculated citrated rabbit plasma to gel or coagulate. The coagulase converts soluble fibrinogen in the plasma into insoluble fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      142.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT true regarding malignant hyperpyrexia ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT true regarding malignant hyperpyrexia

      Your Answer: It can be caused by nitrous oxide

      Explanation:

      Malignant hyerpyrexia occurs in 1 in 150,000. All inhalational anaesthetic agents and suxamethonium, except nitrous oxide can cause malignant hyperpyrexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that is increasing in intensity. This pain is associated with abdominal distension and faint, high-pitched bowel sounds. An old scar is also noted on the abdomen. An erect abdominal X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels in dilated bowel loops. No occult blood was found in stool sample. What is the most likely predisposing factor for his present condition?

      Your Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery

      Explanation:

      The described features suggest acute bowel obstruction. The scar described points toward previous surgery, which suggests development of peritoneal adhesions that could lead to obstruction. Hepatitis does not lead to dilated bowel loops. Amoebiasis could lead to inflammatory bowel disease, however, occult blood in stool is usually positive. Ileal adenocarcinoma is rare. Meckel’s diverticulum can possibly lea to obstruction but the findings described here are more consistent with obstruction due to peritoneal adhesions from a past surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior...

    Incorrect

    • An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior surface of the thigh. The cause of this:

      Your Answer: Could be the result of nerve damage during surgical procedures in the femoral sheath

      Correct Answer: Would result from damage to the nerve that innervates the pectineus muscle

      Explanation:

      The pectineus is supplied by the second, third and fourth lumbar nerves through the femoral nerve and by the third lumbar through the accessory obturator when it exists. The anterior surface of the thigh receives its innervation from the femoral nerve as well, thus this is the nerve most likely to be injured

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      97.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Sclerosing adenosis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia?

      Your Answer: Generalised seizures

      Correct Answer: Respiratory depression

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is a high level of magnesium in the blood. It is defined as a level greater than 1.1 mmol/L. Symptoms include weakness, confusion, decreased breathing rate, and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of choice for parenteral nutrition is:

      Your Answer: Crystalline amino acids

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN), is the practice of feeding a person intravenously, circumventing the gut. It is normally used in the following situations: surgery, when feeding by mouth is not possible, when a person’s digestive system cannot absorb nutrients due to chronic disease or if a person’s nutrient requirement cannot be met by enteral feeding and supplementation. A sterile bag of nutrient solution, between 500 ml and 4L, is provided. The pump infuses a small amount (0.1–10 ml/h) continuously to keep the vein open. The nutrient solution consists of water, glucose, salts, amino acids, vitamins and sometimes emulsified fats. Ideally each patient is assessed individually before commencing on parenteral nutrition, and a team consisting of doctors, nurses, clinical pharmacists and dietitians evaluate the patient’s individual data and decide what formula to use and at what rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration?

      Your Answer: Orphan Annie eye nucleus

      Correct Answer: Homogeneous, ground-glass, pink-staining appearance of cells

      Explanation:

      The characteristic morphological features of hyaline degeneration is ground-glass, pinking staining cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane. The accumulation of lipids, calcium salts, lipofuscin and an amorphous cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane are all characteristically found in different situations.

      Pyknotic nucleus and orphan Annie eye nucleus are not seen in hyaline degeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with...

    Correct

    • A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with a stab wound in the anterior chest 2 cm lateral to the left sternal border. He underwent an emergency thoracotomy that revealed clots in the pericardium, with a puncture wound in the right ventricle. To evacuate the clots from the pericardial cavity the surgeon slipped his hand behind the heart at its apex. He extended his finger upwards until its tip was stopped by a line of pericardial reflection which forms the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this space.

      Cardiac notch: indentation of the ‘of the heart’ on the superior lobe of the left lung.

      Hilar reflection: the reflection of the pleura onto the root of the lung to continue as mediastinal pleura.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      449.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does...

    Incorrect

    • Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does medulloblastoma commonly originate from?

      Your Answer: Pons

      Correct Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Medulloblastoma is the most common malignant brain tumour in children, accounting for 10-20% of primary CNS neoplasms. Most of the tumours originate in the cerebellar vermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A football player sustained an injury to his ankle. The wound went through...

    Correct

    • A football player sustained an injury to his ankle. The wound went through the skin, subcutaneous tissue and flexor retinaculum. Which other structure passing under the retinaculum may be injured?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The flexor retinaculum is immediately posterior to the medial malleolus. The structures that pass under the flexor retinaculum from anterior to posterior are: tendon of the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus. The tibial nerve is the only one which lies behind the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      123.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen...

    Correct

    • During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Normal values for various parameters are as follows:

      Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.

      Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.

      Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).

      Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.

      Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.

      Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?

      Your Answer: Superior vesical

      Correct Answer: Middle rectal

      Explanation:

      Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells?

      Your Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular cells synthesise, store and secrete the enzyme renin in the kidney. They are specialised smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus and thus play a critical role in the renin– angiotensin system and so in renal autoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung underwent complete atelectasis and he has a 7cm tumour involving the chest wall. What is the stage of the lung cancer of this patient?

      Your Answer: T2

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Non-small-cell lung cancer is staged through TNM classification. The stage of this patient is T3 because based on the TNM classification the tumour is staged T3 if > 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: Chest wall (including superior sulcus tumours), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium; or the tumour is in the main bronchus < 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina, Or it is associated with atelectasis/obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumour nodule(s) in the same lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic...

    Correct

    • Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Correct Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:

      Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone

      Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone

      Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone

      Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      106.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?

      Your Answer: Nasolacrimal duct

      Correct Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      125.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused...

    Incorrect

    • Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused by ischaemia in the lateral part of the medulla oblongata and is commonly associated with numerous neurological symptoms. Which of the following arteries when occluded leads to this condition?

      Your Answer: Posterior spinal

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar

      Explanation:

      The lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg’s disease is also known as posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome (PICA). This syndrome is a clinical manifestation of the occlusion of the posterior cerebellar artery that results in symptoms of infarction of the lateral medullary oblongata. Other arteries that contribute to blood flow in to this region such are the vertebral artery, superior middle cerebellar and inferior medullary arteries can also result to this syndrome when occluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of a worsening shortness of breath, fever, agitation and cough. Oxygen saturation was 67% in room air. Her respiratory status continued to deteriorate therefore she was intubated. She was admitted to the intensive care unit for management. Chest X-ray demonstrated bilateral perihilar opacities. The patient failed conventional treatment and died several days later. At autopsy, the lung shows growth of type 2 pneumocytes and thickened alveolar walls. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adult respiratory distress syndrome

      Explanation:

      Acute (or adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening lung condition characterised by a non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema that leads to acute respiratory failure. The most common risk factors for ARDS include trauma with direct lung injury, sepsis, pneumonia, pancreatitis, burns, drug overdose, massive blood transfusion and shock. Acute onset of dyspnoea with hypoxemia, anxiety and agitation is typical. Chest X ray most commonly demonstrates bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Histological changes include the exudative, proliferative and fibrotic phase. ARDS is mainly a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      72.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for the last 5 days. A CT scan reveals an oedematous mass with ring enhancement in the left temporal region. It is biopsied, revealing glial cells, necrosis, neutrophils and lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. It is most frequent in the third decade of life, and when it occurs in children, it is usually associated with congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.

      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.

      Basophils are not present.

      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      297.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of these infectious agents tends to affect people under 20 and over...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these infectious agents tends to affect people under 20 and over 40 years old, can cause acute encephalitis with cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages, along with haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe. A lumbar puncture will reveal clear cerebrospinal fluid with an elevated lymphocyte count?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe are typical of Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE). It tends to affect patients aged under 20 or over 40 years, and is often fatal if left untreated. In acute encephalitis, cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages occur and direct viral invasion of the brain usually damages neurones. The majority of cases of herpes encephalitis are caused by herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), and about 10% of cases of herpes encephalitis are due to HSV-2, which is typically spread through sexual contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Correct

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:

      Sodium = 132 mmol/l

      Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l

      Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl)

      Chloride = 109 μmol/l

      8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl)

      pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg

      p(O2) = 107 mmHg

      standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l.

      What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where?

      Your Answer: In the jejenum

      Correct Answer: In the ileum

      Explanation:

      90 – 95% of the bile salts are absorbed from the small intestine (mostly terminal ileum and then excreted again from the liver. This is known as the enterohepatic circulation. The entire pool recycles twice per meal and approximately 6 to 8 times per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is...

    Correct

    • Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is 60 mmHg, pressure at the other end is 20 mm Hg and the flow rate in the artery is 200 ml/min.

      Your Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Flow in any vessel = Effective perfusion pressure divided by resistance, where effective perfusion pressure is the mean intraluminal pressure at the arterial end minus the mean pressure at the venous end. Thus, in the given problem, resistance = (60 − 20)/200 = 0.2 mmHg/ml per min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      215.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/3) 67%
Pathology (6/13) 46%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (3/8) 38%
Lower Limb (2/3) 67%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Physiology (8/9) 89%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (3/3) 100%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
General (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (0/2) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed