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  • Question 1 - Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your...

    Incorrect

    • Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your office with soreness down below.

      Physical exam is highly suggestive of genital herpes, and patient says she never had such lesions before and this is the first time she is experiencing such a problem. Laboratory investigations like PCR and culture results confirm the diagnosis of primary herpes simplex infection.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management of the case?

      Your Answer: Give acyclovir to the neonate after delivery

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral therapy

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman develops primary herpes simplex infection after 30 weeks gestation, her risk for transmission of herpes simplex virus to the neonate leading to neonatal infection increases significantly.
      Below mentioned are the most common risk factors resulting in intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the baby:
      – Premature labor
      – Premature rupture of membrane
      -Primary herpes simplex infection near the time of delivery
      – Multiple lesions in the genital area
      The most appropriate management for such case includes:
      – Checking for herpes simplex infection with PCR testing (cervical swab)
      – Prophylactic antiviral therapy of the mother from 36th week until delivery
      – Cesarean section delivery

      In the case above mentioned, it is better to start antiviral therapy immediately and consider cesarean section to minimize the risk of vertical transmission of infection to the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with amenorrhoea is seen in clinic. History and examination reveal the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with amenorrhoea is seen in clinic. History and examination reveal the patient runs 10-20 miles every day and her BMI is 17.8. Which of the following is likely to explain her symptoms?

      Your Answer: WHO type II Ovulation Disorders

      Correct Answer: WHO type I Ovulation Disorders

      Explanation:

      World Health Organization (WHO) Group I ovulation disorder is due to hypothalamic pituitary failure. This is sometimes termed hypothalamic amenorrhoea or hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Women can improve frequency of ovulation, conception and an uncomplicated pregnancy by increasing their body weight (if BMI of <19) and/or moderating their exercise levels (if they undertake high levels of exercise). GnRH and LH may be administered in these patients. PCOS falls under type II ovulation disorders. WHO Group III ovulation disorder is due to ovarian failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      115.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Where is Glucagon produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is Glucagon produced?

      Your Answer: Hepatocytes

      Correct Answer: Islet alpha cells

      Explanation:

      The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production and secretion of glucagon. The B cells secrete insulin, the D cells secrete somatostatin, and the F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide. The B cells, which are the most common and account for 60–75% of the cells in the islets, are generally located in the centre of each islet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Sodium Valproate

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic, phenytoin more so than topiramate are inducers of cytochrome P450. They should not be given with COCPs. The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs that induce cytochrome P450 leading to a loss of contraceptive effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      121.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: ...

    Correct

    • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:

      Your Answer: Luteinizing hormone

      Explanation:

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is the hormone responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: A blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
      Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
      Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking a combined oral contraceptive pill in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship. When should she start again?

      Your Answer: Start in 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Start immediately

      Explanation:

      Following an abortion or miscarriage, combined oral contraceptive pills should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of New South Wales. She is 34 weeks pregnant and all her past 3 pregnancy has been uncomplicated.

      On examination her blood pressure is 140/95 mm of Hg today which is higher than her usual blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. Urinalysis shows protein 2+ and the patient feels well generally.

      Among the following, which is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Send her to the local hospital for urgent review

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed clinical features like hypertension and proteinuria consistent with Pre-eclampsia. So the patient should be sent to an obstetrician for urgent review, it is not appropriate in such cases to postpone urgent specialist reviews as it could lead to serious complications.

      Labetalol though is safe in pregnancy and is considered as an option to treat hypertension, it could be given in the emergency department.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as: ...

    Correct

    • Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as:

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis is a disorder characterised by the presence of endometrial glands deep within the myometrium. It presents with increasing severe secondary dysmenorrhoea and increased in the flow of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Pregnant patients are at higher risk of thromboembolism due to a hypercoagulable state....

    Incorrect

    • Pregnant patients are at higher risk of thromboembolism due to a hypercoagulable state. Which of the following clotting factors reduces during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Fibrinogen

      Correct Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, which means that risk of thromboembolism is increased. The main reason is an increase in clotting factors II, factor VII, fibrinogen, factor X and factor XII, whereas factors XI and factor XIII are reduced. Naturally occurring anticoagulants i.e. protein C and protein S are both decreased thus increasing the risk of thrombus formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the incubation period for CMV? ...

    Correct

    • What is the incubation period for CMV?

      Your Answer: 3-12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of CMV is 3-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.

      Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.

      In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?

      Your Answer: Give anti-D now

      Explanation:

      As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.

      Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
      eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
      In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.

      All the other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She recently underwent right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor.  She was on an aromatase inhibitor as adjuvant therapy, which was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. At present, she is scheduled for a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. Patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin.  Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago. Patient's father had a myocardial infarction at the age 64; otherwise her family history is noncontributory. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her vital signs seems stable, with a BMI of 21 kg/m2.

      Patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which among the following complications mentioned below is this patient at greatest risk of developing, due to tamoxifen therapy?

      Your Answer: Hyperplasia of the endometrium

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are drugs which acts as selective estrogen receptor modulators.
      Their mechanisms of action are competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding and mixed agonist/antagonist action respectively.
      Commonly indicated in prevention of breast cancer in high-risk patients. Tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and Raloxifene in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
      Adverse effects include:
      – Hot flashes
      – Venous thromboembolism
      – Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
      – Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)
      Adjuvant endocrine therapy is commonly used option for treatment of nonmetastatic, hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer; and the most commonly used endocrine agents include tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, and ovarian suppression via GnRH agonists or surgery.

      Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator which is an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast.  It is the most preferred adjuvant treatment for pre-menopausal women at low risk of breast cancer recurrence.  Tamoxifen is also a second-line endocrine adjuvant agent for postmenopausal women who cannot use aromatase inhibitor therapy due to intolerable side effects.
      Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and stimulates excessive proliferation of endometrium. Therefore, tamoxifen use is associated with endometrial polyps in premenopausal women, and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in postmenopausal women. These effects will continue throughout the duration of therapy and resolves once the treatment is discontinued. Even with all these possible complications, benefits of tamoxifen to improve the survival from breast cancer outweighs the risk of endometrial cancer.

      In postmenopausal women, tamoxifen has some estrogen-like activity on the bone, which can increase bone mineral density and thereby reduce the incidence of osteoporosis significantly.  However, tamoxifen is generally not a first-line agent for osteoporosis in treatment due to the marked risk of endometrial cancer.

      Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone is typically caused due to chronic infection by human papillomavirus, and tamoxifen has no known effects on the cervix.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with any increased risk for adenomyosis, which is characterised by ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium.

      Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries is a precursor lesion for atherosclerosis. Tamoxifen helps to decrease blood cholesterol level and thereby protect against coronary artery disease.

      Tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist on breast tissue and is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, but it also acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and increases the risk of development of endometrial polyps, hyperplasia, and cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Mini pill

      Correct Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      76.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25 year old prim gravida carrying a twin male pregnancy presents at...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old prim gravida carrying a twin male pregnancy presents at 31 weeks gestation. She is lethargic, clinically jaundiced and complains of abdominal pain with frequent vomiting. You suspect acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP). What is the maternal mortality rate with AFLP?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy occurs in 1-10000 pregnancies and presents as jaundice with abdominal pain. The maternal mortality is around 20%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at her 29th week of gestation, presents to physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at her 29th week of gestation, presents to physician with flu-like symptoms for the past 3 days along with runny nose, mild headache and she feels achy. She also has mild fever and diffuse rash all over her body. She is concerned about the health of her baby and wants to know if there are any safe medications which will make her feel better in a short time. She has received tetanus vaccination as part of antenatal care program since she immigrated at the end of her first trimester from Romania. Patient is otherwise healthy.

      Considering the symptoms and travel history of this patient, she is at higher risk of giving birth to a newborn with which of the following options?

      Your Answer: Single S2

      Correct Answer: Wide pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      This pregnant woman likely has an infection with the rubella virus, which increases the risk of congenital rubella syndrome in her newborn. congenital heart diseases, particularly patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a part of this syndrome. Persistence of a patent vessel between the left pulmonary artery and aorta which is supposed to closes in the first 18 hours functionally and in the first 2–3 days of life anatomically is called as PDA.

      Normally there is right to left shunting in utero, but in case of PDA blood is shunted from the left (aorta) to the right (pulmonary artery) due to the decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance after birth. This causes right ventricular hypertrophy, if left untreated it can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure. There will be a continuous machine-like murmur, heard over the left upper sternal border, as the blood is shunted throughout cardiac cycle. Diastolic BP becomes lower than normal, leading to a higher pulse pressure which is felt as a bounding pulse due to the lost volume from aorta. Though PDA is a non-cyanotic condition, it may lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome in which R to L shunting persists, resulting in cyanosis, clubbing and polycythemia. Treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like indomethacin can close patent PDA. Other symptoms in infants born with rubella syndrome are microcephaly and cataract.

      The characteristic feature of an atrial septal defect or ASD, which is a congenital heart disease presenting as an opening in the septa between right and left atria, is a single fixed S2. There will be a delay in closure of the pulmonic valve, due to the excess amount of blood diverted to the right side.

      Brachial-femoral delay is a finding in coarctation of aorta, which presents as hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities.

      A double split S2 is a physiological finding caused by the closure of pulmonary and aortic valves on inspiration.

      PDA and pulmonary artery stenosis are the most common cardiac defects reported along with congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), whereas tricuspid valve regurgitation is never reported along with it.

      Learning objective: is associated with a continuous machine-like murmur heard over the left upper sternal border, bounding pulse and an increased pulse pressure are the usual symptoms associated with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is mostly seen along with congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?

      Your Answer: Transitional

      Correct Answer: Mucinous

      Explanation:

      Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is the most common congenital thrombophilia. Named after the Dutch city Leiden where it was first discovered. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 (Not type 2) thrombophilias Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired (NOT congenital) thrombophilia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria.

      Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Give ondansetron and intravenous fluids

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).

      Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.

      Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer: A hydrocephalic baby

      Correct Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in women? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in women?

      Your Answer: Perineal, superior rectal and posterior nerve of clitoris

      Correct Answer: Perineal, inferior anal and dorsal nerve of clitoris

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. The nerve gives the following branches in females: the inferior anal nerve, the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible.

      Which is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section at term.

      Correct Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.

      Explanation:

      The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding the renal tract during pregnancy, the following are true, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the renal tract during pregnancy, the following are true, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: The primigravida shows more changes then multigravida

      Correct Answer: The bladder tone increases

      Explanation:

      Incontinence in women is typically related to dysfunction of the bladder or pelvic floor muscles, with such dysfunction often arising during pregnancy or childbirth, or at the time of menopause.

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      86.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates...

    Incorrect

    • During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: Tissue Factor

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
      Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.

      Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to...

    Incorrect

    • After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to your office with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea. She's taking oral contraceptives. Even when she was quite unwell, she did not miss her pills.

      Which of the following would be the best piece of contraceptive and pill advise you could give her?

      Your Answer: Give her ciprofloxacin and review in 2 days

      Correct Answer: She should continue the pills and use condom for 7 days

      Explanation:

      If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.

      If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours the patient should use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.

      Options to stop pills are incorrect as it increases risk of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Where is fetal DHEA produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is fetal DHEA produced?

      Your Answer: Pineal

      Correct Answer: Adrenals

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium?

      Your Answer: 18-26 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: 10-16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Meconium first appears in the fetal ilium at 10-16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
      – Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
      – Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
      – Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
      – Lethal fetal anomalies
      – Intrauterine fetal demise
      – Suspected fetal compromise
      – Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
      – Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
      – Maternal hypotension
      – Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
      – Placenta previa
      – Placental insufficiency
      – Intrauterine growth retardation
      – Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.

      As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.

      When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following can be considered as a major contraindication for the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be considered as a major contraindication for the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Contraindications of PROVERA (medroxyprogesterone acetate) include: undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding, known, suspected, or history of breast cancer, known or suspected oestrogen- or progesterone-dependent neoplasia, active DVT, pulmonary embolism, or a history of these conditions, active arterial thromboembolic disease (for example, stroke and MI), or a history of these conditions, known anaphylactic reaction or angioedema, known liver impairment or disease, known or suspected pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation.

      The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.

      With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.

      PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:

      Anger or irritability.
      Anxiety and panic attacks.
      Depression and suicidal thoughts.
      Difficulty concentrating.
      Fatigue and low energy.
      Food cravings or binge eating.
      Headaches.
      Insomnia.
      Mood swings.

      The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:

      Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
      The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
      The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
      Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
      Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be in speeding up delivery

      Explanation:

      The best time of the episiotomy is when the presenting part becomes visible during the contractions. If the episiotomy is performed at the proper time, less time will be required for the delivery. However, if its done too late, it causes excessive stretching of the pelvic floor and further potential lacerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Regarding threatened abortion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding threatened abortion:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic. She is complaining of restricted joint movement and severe pain in her joints. Choose the most appropriate medication for her from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is safe to take during pregnancy and has shown no harm to unborn children during studies. It is the treatment of choice for mild to moderate pain during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac fossa pain while getting up from a chair and has been coughing and sneezing.

      On examination, there is no palpable mass or rebound tenderness.

      What will be the most likely cause for patient's complaint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament strain

      Explanation:

      Patient’s symptoms and signs are suggestive of round ligament strain, which is a normal finding during pregnancy, especially in the 2nd trimester, and it does not require any medical intervention.

      Round ligament is a rope-like fibromuscular band which extends from the anterolateral aspect of uterus anteriorly between the layers of the broad ligament, and passing through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal.
      A sharp, sudden spasm in the right iliac fossa which lasts for a few seconds which is usually triggered by sneezing, coughing, laughing and rolling over in bed are the common presentations of a round ligament pain.

      Ectopic pregnancy and rupture of ectopic pregnancy are two unlikely diagnosis in this patient as she is in the second trimester of her pregnancy, whereas both the mentioned conditions occur during the first trimester.

      Although appendicitis presents with pain in right iliac fossa, the pain is not causes by coughing or sneezing. Also, there will be other symptoms like tenderness and rebound tenderness in right iliac fossa in case of appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness of the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The anterior aspect of the vulva (mons pubis, anterior labia) is supplied by derivatives of the lumbar plexus: the anterior labial nerves, derived from the
      ilio-inguinal nerve, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
      The posterior aspect of the vulva is supplied by derivatives of the sacral plexus: the perineal branch of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh laterally, and the pudendal nerve centrally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A missed abortion

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.

      – By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
      – An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
      – A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Incorrect

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below:

      Pulse rate: 64 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C

      On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min.

      Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta praevia.

      Explanation:

      In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.

      An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.

      In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.

      A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 43 - At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute? ...

    Incorrect

    • At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500 to 750 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The average volume of uterine blood flow at term is 500-750 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
      The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good control of blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Thee good news in regard to incontinence after childbirth is that there are many treatment options. Some common treatment options are listed below.

      Food and drinks such as coffee, citrus, spicy foods and soda can all irritate the bladder. Cutting back on or eliminating these foods may help improve incontinence symptoms. Keeping weight within a healthy BMI range, and/or focusing on losing pregnancy weight, can also help with bladder control.

      Kegels strengthen the pelvic floor, giving more control over urinary urges. Pelvic floor physical therapy can also help build muscle memory and strength. The abdominal muscles, hip muscles and pelvic floor muscles work together when a woman performs strengthening exercises like Kegels. Physical therapists identify areas of weakness in those muscle groups to help a woman build a strong core and pelvic floor.

      The bladder is a muscle that should be regularly strengthened. Scheduling urination times and then gradually increasing the amount of time in between urination can increase bladder strength.

      Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation is a nonsurgical treatment for overactive bladder and a form of neuromodulation therapy. During PTNS treatments, a doctor places a slim needle in the ankle where the tibial nerve is located. The needle delivers electrical impulses to the tibial nerve, which sends signals to the sacral nerves in the spine that control bladder and pelvic floor function. Over time, these pulses block nerve signals that are not working properly to lessen urinary incontinence symptoms.

      Evaluating lifestyle factors. Excessive coughing due to smoking or being overweight can put unnecessary strain on the pelvic floor muscles. Certain drugs such as antidepressants and antihistamines can also have an impact on urinary incontinence.
      Pessary. A pessary is a device inserted into the vagina to provide support for vaginal tissues, in turn, aiding in bladder incontinence.

      Surgical treatment options can help support the pelvic floor and may be recommended for women who have completed childbearing and have not had success with conservative therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - DHEA is synthesized from which molecule? ...

    Incorrect

    • DHEA is synthesized from which molecule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen precursor produced primarily by the adrenal glands in women. The steroid hormone is produced from cholesterol at birth by the fetal adrenal glands, after which its output reduces. DHEA production picks up again from the age of 5-7 years and peaks between the ages of 20-30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after birth. Subsequent investigation and imaging reveals choanal atresia. Upon questioning the mother reveals she had been getting repeat prescriptions from her GP in Poland without her UK GPs' or your knowledge. Which of the following medication was most likely to cause this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This is one of the defects attributable to Carbimazole use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is the average volume of blood loss during the menstrual cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average volume of blood loss during the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 35-40ml

      Explanation:

      Normal menstrual blood loss is about 40-45 ml. More than 80 ml per period is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 49 - A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)

      Explanation:

      Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.

      Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the: ...

    Incorrect

    • After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (5/9) 56%
Endocrinology (2/4) 50%
Clinical Management (4/9) 44%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Passmed