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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early pregnancy. What is the risk of miscarriage in women in this age group?
Your Answer: 75%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Miscarriage rates:
20-24 – 9%
25-29 – 11%
30-34 – 15%
35-39 – 25%
40-44 – 51%
>45 – 75% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
What would be your advice to her?Your Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks
Explanation:Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.
Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.
Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test.
As part of postcoital testing, she and her partner should have sexual intercourse on which day of her menstrual cycle?Your Answer: Day 14
Explanation:Post coital literally means “after intercourse” which is when this fertility test is conducted. The patient has intercourse at home usually between cycle days 12 and 15 (or a day around the LH surge as measured by urinary ovulation predictor kits). Afterwards, the female comes to the office and a sample of the cervical mucus is taken for microscopic examination.
The post coital fertility test (PCT) allows for evaluation of sperm in the cervical mucus and to determine the consistency of the mucus. Sperm must swim through the cervical mucus from the vagina, through the cervix, and into the uterus. Normal sperm will be active and swim in approximate straight lines through the mucus. If the mucus is too thick, sperm impedance can be observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:
Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst
Explanation:Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding the round ligament, it leaves the pelvis via which structure?
Your Answer: Superficial inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Explanation:The round ligament is a band of fibromuscular connective tissue attached to the cornua of the uterus, near the attachment of the ovaries. On each side of the body, the ligament exits the pelvis through the deep inguinal ring, travels through the inguinal canal and enters the labia majora where its fibres terminate at the mons pubis. It is also important to know the embryological origins of the round ligament from the gubernaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily.
On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg.
From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?Your Answer: Cease ramipril, start hydralazine
Correct Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa
Explanation:In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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The superficial inguinal ring is an aperture in which structure?
Your Answer: Aponeurosis external oblique
Explanation:The superficial ring is the exit to the inguinal canal. It is a triangular aperture in the aponeurosis of external oblique. The conjoint tendon reinforces the ring posteriorly
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of New South Wales. She is 34 weeks pregnant and all her past 3 pregnancy has been uncomplicated.
On examination her blood pressure is 140/95 mm of Hg today which is higher than her usual blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. Urinalysis shows protein 2+ and the patient feels well generally.
Among the following, which is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Send her to the local hospital for urgent review
Explanation:This patient has developed clinical features like hypertension and proteinuria consistent with Pre-eclampsia. So the patient should be sent to an obstetrician for urgent review, it is not appropriate in such cases to postpone urgent specialist reviews as it could lead to serious complications.
Labetalol though is safe in pregnancy and is considered as an option to treat hypertension, it could be given in the emergency department.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75 year old woman has a lesion biopsied from the cervix that is histologically confirmed as endometrial carcinoma. Further staging investigations shows no spread to the serosa or adnexa, no spread to the para-aortic, pelvic or inguinal lymph nodes and no evidence of distant metastasis. What FIGO stage is this?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:It is stage 2 of the disease.
Staging:
1 Confined to uterus
1A < 50% myometrial invasion
1B > 50% myometrial invasion
2 Cervical stromal invasion but not beyond uterus
3 Extension beyond the uterus
3A Tumour invades the serosa or adnexa
3B Vaginal and/or parametrial invasion
3C1 Pelvic nodal involvement
3C2 Para aortic nodal involvement
4 Distant Metastasis
4A Tumour invasion of the bladder and/or bowel mucosa
4B Distant metastases including abdominal metastases and/or inguinal lymph nodes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring.
Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?Your Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery
Explanation:Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.
Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.
The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.
In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Explanation:The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.
Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?
Your Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to her GP with concerns regarding the evolution of her pregnancy. She's afraid she might experience an obstetric cholestasis just like her older sister did in the past. What is the fundamental symptom of obstetric cholestasis?
Your Answer: Pruritus
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Cholestasis of pregnancy is associated with increased fetal morbidity and mortality and should be treated actively. The significance attached to pruritus in pregnancy is often minimal, but it is a cardinal symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, which may have no other clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?
Your Answer: Sodium Valproate
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:It is important to be aware of which ant-epileptics induce cytochrome P450. Of the above Topiramate and Phenytoin are moderate and strong inducers respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 17
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.
On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.
Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.
Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.
In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.
In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.
An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally.
What would be your advice?Your Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition
Explanation:From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the average anteroposterior distance of the female pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: 13 cm
Explanation:The pelvic outlet is bounded in front by the lower margin of the symphysis pubis, on each side by the descending ramus of the pubic bone, the ischial tuberosity and the sacrotuberous ligament, and posteriorly by the last piece of the sacrum. The AP diameter of the pelvic outlet is 13.5 cm and the transverse diameter is 11 cm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?Your Answer: A missed abortion
Explanation:In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.
– By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
– An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
– A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following is the primary source of oestrogen ?
Your Answer: Granulosa cells
Explanation:Ovarian granulosa cells (GC) are the major source of oestradiol synthesis. Induced by the preovulatory luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, cells of the theca and, in particular, of the granulosa cell layer profoundly change their morphological, physiological, and molecular characteristics and form the progesterone-producing corpus luteum that is responsible for maintaining pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following studies is most appropriate to assess the efficacy of a new medication to reduce pain caused by endometriosis?
Your Answer: Randomised Control Trial
Explanation:Randomized control trials are the gold standard when it comes to assessing the treatment options or interventions in medicine. Since its introduction, RCT has questioned the validity of treatments such as oral hypoglycaemic agents, myocardial infarction hospitalization, varicose veins, toxicity and applicability of many preventive and therapeutic procedures. The basic steps include drawing up the protocol, selecting a study population, randomization, intervention, follow up and assessment of the outcome. Note if assessing prognosis or diagnostic tests Cohort and Cross Sectional Analysis are best.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.
Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?Your Answer: Iodine
Explanation:There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.
The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.
Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding the vaginal artery is typically TRUE?
Your Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The vaginal artery is the homolog to the inferior vesical artery in males. In most of the cases it arises from the internal iliac artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.
Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?Your Answer: Deep dyspareunia
Correct Answer: Dysmenorrhoea
Explanation:The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:
Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
Pain during intercourse
Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
Infertility
Painful urination during menstrual periods
Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nauseaAll options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Inguinal nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain from the parts of the vagina as follows:
• Superior part: to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes.
• Middle part: to the internal iliac lymph nodes.
• Inferior part: to the sacral and common iliac nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.
A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.
Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?Your Answer: Increase risk of adhesions
Explanation:Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
-Increased risk of maternal mortality.
-Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
-Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
-Increased risk of infections.Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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The main support of the uterus is provided by:
Your Answer: The cardinal ligament
Explanation:The cardinal ligament (or Mackenrodt’s ligament, lateral or transverse cervical ligament) is a major ligament of the uterus. It is located at the base of the broad ligament of the uterus. It attaches the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall by its attachment to the Obturator fascia of the Obturator internus muscle, and is continuous externally with the fibrous tissue that surrounds the pelvic blood vessels. It thus provides support to the uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Correct
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A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.
Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?Your Answer: Free T4
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Correct
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WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as
Your Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births
Explanation:WHO defines perinatal death as the number of still births and death in the first week of life per 1000 births.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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