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  • Question 1 - Thiopental sodium is contraindicated in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Thiopental sodium is contraindicated in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyrias

      Explanation:

      Barbiturates induce hepatic enzymes. The enzyme gamma aminolevulinic acid synthetase, which produces porphyrins, can be induced and in susceptible patients an attack of acute intermittent porphyria can occur. Thiopental is absolutely contraindicated in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old male patient lives in a travelling community and has never...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient lives in a travelling community and has never received any vaccinations. He presents to you with fever.

      Which of these statements concerning indications and contraindications for vaccination is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Premature infants should have the their immunisation schedule adjusted for gestational age

      Explanation:

      All vaccines are contraindicated in individuals with:
      A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine or a vaccine containing the same antigens.
      A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a component in the vaccine e.g. neomycin

      Live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy except in cases where risk of infection is more than the risks of vaccination.

      During times of acute febrile illness, vaccination should be avoided.

      12 weeks should elapse after a dose of human immunoglobulin before a live vaccine is administered.

      The normal times recommended for immunization of full-term babies should also be applied to premature infants and correction for gestational age should NOT be implemented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      19.4
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Platelet alpha granules release which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Platelet alpha granules release which of the following?

      Your Answer: Ionised calcium

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand factor (VWF)

      Explanation:

      There are three types of storage granules contained in platelets. These are dense granules which contain the following:
      -ATP
      -ADP
      -serotonin and calcium alpha granules containing clotting factors
      -von Willebrand factor (VWF)
      -platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
      – other proteins lysosomes containing hydrolytic enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      15.5
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - You evaluate a 80-year-old man who has a history of persistent heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 80-year-old man who has a history of persistent heart failure and discover that he has generalised oedema.

      Which of the following claims regarding capillary hydrostatic pressure (P c) is false?

      Your Answer: P c is more sensitive to changes in venule pressure than arteriolar pressure

      Correct Answer: P c increases along the length of the capillary, from arteriole to venule

      Explanation:

      The capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) is normally between 15 and 30 millimetres of mercury. Pc Decreases along the capillary’s length, mirroring the arteriolar and venule pressures proximally and distally.
      Pc is determined by the ratio of arteriolar resistance (RA) to venular resistance (RV).

      When the RA/RV ratio is high, the pressure drop across the capillary is modest, and Pcis is close to venule pressure.

      When the ratio of RA/RV is low, the pressure drop across the capillary is considerable, and Pcis is close to arteriolar pressure.

      Pcis closer to the venule pressure and thus more responsive to changes in venous pressure than arteriolar pressure when RA/RV is high.

      Pcis the major force behind fluid pushing out of the capillary bed and into the interstitium.
      It is also the most variable of the forces affecting fluid transport at the capillary, partly because sympathetic-mediated arteriolar vasoconstriction varies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      51.7
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old woman presents with a fever and headache upon returning from an...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with a fever and headache upon returning from an overseas business trip. Upon further investigation, a diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum malaria was made.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Plasmodium falciparum malaria, except:

      Your Answer: Sporozoites invade hepatocytes

      Correct Answer: It is commonly the result of travel in the Indian subcontinent

      Explanation:

      The mean incubation period for P. falciparum is 12 days.

      WHO World Malaria Report 2019 states that an estimated 228 million cases of malaria occurred worldwide in 2018, and reports steadily decreasing the number of cases since 2010. In 2018, nineteen sub-Saharan African countries and India carried approximately 85% of the global malaria burden. The most prevalent and pathogenic malaria parasite, most commonly associated with severe illness and death, especially in the WHO African region, accounting for 99.7% malaria cases, is P. falciparum.

      The vector for Plasmodium spp. is a female Anopheles mosquito that inoculates sporozoites contained in her salivary glands into the puncture wound when feeding. Sporozoites enter peripheral bloodstream and are uptake by hepatocytes, where they undergo an asexual pre-erythrocytic liver-stage as liver schizonts lasting up to 2 weeks before the onset of the blood stage.

      Intravenous or intramuscular artesunate is the first-line treatment in all patients worldwide and should be used for at least 24 hours and until the oral medication is tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      15.6
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following nerves provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior surface of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior surface of the scrotum?

      Your Answer: Branches of the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Branch of the perineal nerve

      Explanation:

      The following nerves provide cutaneous innervation to the scrotum, and other anatomic structures:

      The perineal nerve supplies the muscles in the urogenital triangle, and the skin on the posterior surface of the scrotum (or labia majora).

      The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster muscle, the skin over the anterior surface of the thigh, and the anterolateral surface of the scrotum.

      The ilioinguinal nerve supplies the external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, skin of the upper medial aspect of thigh, the root of the penis and the anterior surface of the scrotum in the male, and the mons pubis and labia majora in the female.

      The posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, or posterior femoral cutaneous nerve, supplies the skin over the lower medial quadrant of the buttock, the inferior skin of the scrotum or labium majus, and the back of the thigh and the upper part of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      15.1
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath. He has had a heart transplant in the past. His electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate adenosine dose for him to receive as a first dose?

      Your Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A rapid IV bolus of adenosine is given, followed by a saline flush. The standard adult dose is 6 mg, followed by 12 mg if necessary, and then another 12 mg bolus every 1-2 minutes until an effect is seen.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant, on the other hand, are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - All of the following statements are correct regarding the management of acute asthma...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are correct regarding the management of acute asthma in adults except:

      Your Answer: Intravenous aminophylline has been shown to result in significant additional bronchodilation compared to standard care.

      Explanation:

      There usually isn’t any additional bronchodilation with intravenous (IV) aminophylline compared to standard care with inhaled bronchodilators and steroids. IV aminophylline may cause side effects such as arrhythmias and vomiting. However, some additional benefit may be gained in patients with near-fatal asthma or life-threatening asthma with a poor response to initial therapy (5 mg/kg loading dose over 20 minutes unless on maintenance oral therapy, then continuous infusion of 0.5 – 0.7 mg/kg/hr).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      8.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A patient is referred for lung function tests on account of a history...

    Correct

    • A patient is referred for lung function tests on account of a history of breathlessness and cough.

      Which statement about lung volumes is correct?

      Your Answer: The tidal volume is the volume of air drawn in and out of the lungs during normal breathing

      Explanation:

      The tidal volume(TV) is the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle. In a healthy male, the usual volume is 0.5 L (,7 ml/kg body mass).

      The vital capacity(VC) is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled following maximal inspiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 4.5 L.

      The residual volume(RV) is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 1.0 L.

      The inspiratory reserve volume(IRV) is the maximum amount of air that can be breathed in forcibly after normal inspiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 3.0 L.

      The expiratory reserve volume(ERV) is the volume of air that can be breathed out forcibly after normal expiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 1.0 L.

      Total lung capacity(TLC) is the volume of air the lungs can accommodate. TLC = RV+VC. The usual volume in a healthy male is 5.5 L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      11
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy...

    Correct

    • You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy bruising in the past. She exhibits considerable face fullness and truncal obesity on examination. You diagnose her�with Cushing's syndrome.
      When would her random cortisol level likely be abnormal?

      Your Answer: 2400 hrs

      Explanation:

      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep.

      The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration...

    Correct

    • Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.

      Which pancreatic islet cells secretes glucagon?

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, secreted from the pancreatic islet alpha cells, is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream

      There are five different pancreatic islet cells:
      Alpha cells (20%) – produce glucagon
      Beta cells (70%) – produce insulin and amylin
      Delta cells (<10%) – produce somatostatin
      Gamma cells (<5%) – produce pancreatic polypeptide
      Epsilon cells (<1%) – produce ghrelin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is:

      Your Answer: Increased production of granulation tissue

      Correct Answer: Minimisation of scar tissue formation

      Explanation:

      Primary wound healing, or healing by first intention, occurs within hours of repairing a full-thickness surgical incision. This surgical insult results in the mortality of a minimal number of cellular constituents. Healing by first intention can occur when the wound edges are opposed, the wound is clean and uninfected and there is minimal loss of cells and tissue i.e. surgical incision wound. The wound margins are joined by fibrin deposition, which is subsequently replaced by collagen and covered by epidermal growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      12.3
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis?

      Your Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the recurrent (thenar) branch of median nerve (root value C8 and T1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      17.2
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old female is brought to the Ophthalmology Clinic by her mother with...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old female is brought to the Ophthalmology Clinic by her mother with the complaint of itching, redness, and a watery discharge of the right eye. Past medical history revealed an upper respiratory tract infection one week ago.

      On examination of the right eye, there is mild erythema of the palpebral conjunctiva and visible follicles seen on eversion of the eyelid, lid oedema, and subconjunctival petechial haemorrhages. The discharge is watery and not purulent.

      You diagnose her with viral conjunctivitis. According to the current NICE guidelines, which ONE of the following management options would NOT be included for this patient?

      Your Answer: The child should be excluded from school until the infection has resolved

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines do NOT recommend isolating a patient with viral conjunctivitis from others or skipping school or work. The disease is contagious, but the spread of the disease can be controlled by maintaining good hygiene practices such as:
      1. frequent hand washing
      2. use of separate flannels and towels
      3. Avoid close contact with others

      Antibiotic prescriptions are not part of the NICE guidelines for viral conjunctivitis as they will not affect the course of the disease. Most cases of viral conjunctivitis are self-limiting and resolve within one to two weeks.

      The NICE guidelines recommend that symptoms may be eased with self-care measures such as:
      1. Bathing/cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water to remove any discharge
      2. Cool compresses applied gently around the eye area
      3. Use of lubricating drops or artificial tears

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      26.6
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old patient is intubated and has a central venous catheter inserted after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is intubated and has a central venous catheter inserted after being diagnosed with septic shock. You keep track of her central venous pressure.

      The normal value for central venous pressure is which of the following?

      Your Answer: 8-15 cmH 2 O

      Correct Answer: 0-8 cmH 2 O

      Explanation:

      The pressure measured in the right atrium or superior vena cava is known as central venous pressure (CVP). In a spontaneously breathing subject, the usual CVP value is 0-8 cmH2O (0-6 mmHg).

      At the conclusion of expiration, the CVP should be measured with the patient resting flat. The catheter’s tip should be at the intersection of the superior vena cava and the right atrium. An electronic transducer is installed and zeroed at the level of the right atrium to measure it (usually in the 4th intercostal space in the mid-axillary line).
      CVP is a good predictor of preload in the right ventricle. Hypovolaemia is indicated by a volume challenge of 250-500 mL crystalloid eliciting an increase in CVP that is not sustained for more than 10 minutes.

      CVP is influenced by a number of factors, including:
      Mechanical ventilation (and PEEP)
      Pulmonary hypertension
      Pulmonary embolism
      Heart failure
      Pleural effusion
      Decreased cardiac output
      Cardiac tamponade
      CVP is reduced by the following factors:
      Distributive shock
      Negative pressure ventilation
      Hypovolaemia
      Deep inhalation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      11.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - For which of the following is micelle formation necessary to facilitate intestinal absorption?...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following is micelle formation necessary to facilitate intestinal absorption?

      Your Answer: Bile acids

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The arrangement of micelles is such that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by hydrophilic bile acids that are arranged in the outer region. This arrangement allows the entry of micelles into the aqueous layers surrounding the microvilli. As a result, the products of fat digestion (fatty acids and monoglycerides), cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamin D) can then diffuse passively into the enterocytes. The bile salts are left within the lumen of the gut where they are reabsorbed from the ileum or excreted in faeces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      4.2
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - The following statements concerning lung compliance is true EXCEPT?
    ...

    Correct

    • The following statements concerning lung compliance is true EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Lung compliance is described by the equation: C = ∆ P/ ∆V, where C = compliance, P = pressure, and V = volume

      Explanation:

      Lung compliance is the change in volume per unit change in distending pressure.

      It is calculated using the equation:
      Lung compliance = ΔV / ΔP
      Where:
      ΔV is the change in volume
      ΔP is the change in pleural pressure.

      Lung compliance is inversely proportional to stiffness and elastance.

      It comprises static (no airflow) and dynamic (during continuous breathing) components.

      It is the slope of the pressure-volume curve.

      Lung compliance describes the distensibility of the lungs and the chest wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which of the following is considered the best source of information if a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is considered the best source of information if a research on the national hospital MRSA rates is being done?

      Your Answer: National Census data

      Correct Answer: Hospital Episode Statistics

      Explanation:

      Hospital Episode Statistics (HES) is a data warehouse containing details of all admissions, outpatient appointments and A and E attendances at NHS hospitals in England.

      Each HES record contains a wide range of information about an individual patient admitted to an NHS hospital, including:
      – clinical information about diagnoses and operations
      – patient information, such as age group, gender and ethnicity
      – administrative information, such as dates and methods of admission and discharge
      – geographical information such as where patients are treated and the area where they live

      Some benefits of HES include:
      – monitor trends and patterns in NHS hospital activity
      – assess effective delivery of care
      – support local service planning
      – reveal health trends over time
      – determine fair access to health care

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Regarding Gaussian sample distribution, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Gaussian sample distribution, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: The mode is the most commonly observed measurement

      Correct Answer: It can be skewed left or right

      Explanation:

      Gaussian distribution, also known as normal distribution, is the most important probability distribution in statistics because it fits many natural phenomena. The normal distribution is a probability function that describes how the values of a variable are distributed. Below are its characteristics:

      (1) Bell-shaped and symmetrical about the mean
      (2) The mean, median, mode are all equal
      (3) The total area under the curve and above the x-axis is equal to 1
      (4) It has long tapering tails extending infinitely but never touching the x-axis
      (5) It is determined by its parameters: its mean and standard deviation
      (6) The standard deviation becomes a more meaningful quality than merely being a measure of dispersion

      The mean is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation, and is also known as the ‘average’.

      The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers.

      The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is commonly used in public health statistics, such as the top 10 causes of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      74
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - The Frank-Starling curve is shifted downhill in heart failure due to which of...

    Incorrect

    • The Frank-Starling curve is shifted downhill in heart failure due to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Decrease in preload

      Correct Answer: Decrease in contractility

      Explanation:

      The Frank–Starling mechanism states that the left ventricle can increase its force of contraction and hence stroke volume in response to increases in venous return and thus preload.

      Changes in afterload or inotropy cause the Frank–Starling curve to rise or fall. In heart failure, the Frank–Starling curve is shifted downward (flattened), requiring higher venous return and filling pressure to enhance contractility and stroke volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Correct

    • How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole inhibits both the reuptake of adenosine and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP and thus blocking the platelet aggregation response to ADP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      2.6
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate...

    Incorrect

    • You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate an elderly gentleman who had collapsed at home. The team leader requests that you administer an adrenaline shot.

      Which of the following statements about adrenaline is FALSE?

      Your Answer: It has approximately equal activity at both alpha- and beta receptors

      Correct Answer: The IM dose in anaphylaxis is 1 ml of 1:1000

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic amine that binds to alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors and acts as an agonist. It is active at both alpha and beta receptors in roughly equal amounts.

      When taken orally, it becomes inactive. Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intramuscular absorption. In cardiac arrest, it is well absorbed from the tracheal mucosa and can be given through an endotracheal tube.

      At the adrenergic synapse, catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) metabolise it primarily. The inactive products are then passed through the kidneys and excreted in the urine.

      In adult cardiac arrest, the IV dose is 1 mg, which is equal to 10 ml of 1:10000 or 1 ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, the IM dose is 0.5 ml of 1:1000. (500 mcg).

      In open-angle glaucoma, adrenaline causes mydriasis and lowers pressure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the treatment of severe croup, and the emergency management of acute allergic and anaphylactic reactions (as a nebuliser solution).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      27.2
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A patient was diagnosed with Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial...

    Incorrect

    • A patient was diagnosed with Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury sustained in a car accident and, as a result, suffers from left arm paralysis. The following muscles are affected by the injury, except

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      Damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots causes Erb’s palsy.

      The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle, thus you would not expect this muscle to be impacted.

      The trapezius is a muscle that runs from the base of the neck across the shoulders and into the centre of the back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      10.4
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Atracurium is used as a muscle relaxant during endotracheal intubation. This drug’s mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • Atracurium is used as a muscle relaxant during endotracheal intubation. This drug’s mechanism of action is best described by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that is used to help with intubation and controlled ventilation by causing muscle relaxation and paralysis.

      At the neuromuscular junction’s post-synaptic membrane, atracurium competes with acetylcholine for nicotinic (N2) receptor binding sites. This prevents the receptors from being stimulated by acetylcholine.

      Muscle paralysis occurs gradually due to the competitive blockade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      158.9
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes.

      Explanation:

      Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The time interval from differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets averages 10 days. Thrombopoietin is the major regulator of platelet formation and 95% of this is produced by the liver. The normal platelet count is approximately 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal platelet lifespan is 10 days. Under normal circumstances, about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      8
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 25 year old woman who is a known diabetic is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman who is a known diabetic is brought to the ED with diabetic ketoacidosis. She promptly received an insulin infusion. Which of the following are expected to increase upon infusion of insulin?

      Your Answer: Urine glucose concentration

      Correct Answer: Blood pH

      Explanation:

      Ketoacidosis is characterized by hyperglycaemia, glycosuria, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation. An insulin infusion would be able to address these by lowering blood glucose through increased insulin-mediated cellular uptake, lowering urine glucose concentration as cellular glucose uptake is increased, decreasing K+ in her blood by shifting it into cells, and increasing blood ph by addressing the metabolic acidosis. The metabolic acidosis is addressed by the reduction of ketoacids production thereby returning her blood ph to normal and reducing the need for compensatory hyperventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      11.5
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old male with a known case of Haemophilia A is referred to...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male with a known case of Haemophilia A is referred to your orthopaedic clinic for evaluation and aspiration of a hemarthrosis of the left knee joint.

      Out of the modes of inheritance listed below, which one is present in this disease?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      All the Haemophilia’s have an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern, so they only manifest in male patients. Diseases with a mitochondrial inheritance pattern include MELAS syndrome, Leigh syndrome, LHON and MERRF syndrome. Autosomal dominant disorders include Huntingdon disease and Marfan syndrome. X-linked dominant diseases include Fragile X syndrome. Autosomal recessive diseases include cystic fibrosis and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.7
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - The risk of renal impairment in a patient on ACE inhibitor therapy is...

    Correct

    • The risk of renal impairment in a patient on ACE inhibitor therapy is increased by concomitant treatment with which of the following drug classes:

      Your Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Concomitant treatment with NSAIDs increases the risk of renal damage, and with potassium-sparing diuretics (or potassium-containing salt substitutes) increases the risk of hyperkalaemia. Hyperkalaemia and other side effects of ACE inhibitors are more common in the elderly and in those with impaired renal function and the dose may need to be reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Regarding bile, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding bile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater.

      Explanation:

      Bile is synthesised in the liver. Bile functions to eliminate endogenous and exogenous substances from the liver, to neutralise gastric acid in the small intestine, and to emulsify fats in the small intestine and facilitate their digestion and absorption. Bile is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. Bile passes out of the gallbladder via the cystic duct. Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater regulated by the sphincter of Oddi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a clonal (malignant) bone marrow disorder in which early lymphoid precursors multiply and replace the marrow’s normal hematopoietic cells. ALL is most common between the ages of 3 and 7, with 75 percent of cases occurring before the age of 6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.5
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - A 44 year old woman sustains an injury to the median nerve at...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old woman sustains an injury to the median nerve at the elbow after falling awkwardly. Which of the following clinical features are you LEAST likely to see on examination:

      Your Answer: Weakness of pronation

      Correct Answer: Loss of flexion of the medial two digits

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the index and middle fingers at the IPJs is lost due to paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis and the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus. Flexion of the MCPJs of the index and middle fingers are lost due to paralysis of the lateral two lumbrical muscles. Flexion of the ring and little fingers are preserved as these are supported by the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus and the medial two lumbrical muscles, innervated by the ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14.7
      Seconds

  • Question 32 - Cystic fibrosis patients have a weakened lung surfactant system. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • Cystic fibrosis patients have a weakened lung surfactant system. Which of the following cell types is in charge of surfactant secretion?

      Your Answer: Type II pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Alveolar type II cells are responsible for four primary functions: surfactant synthesis and secretion, xenobiotic metabolism, water transepithelial transport, and alveolar epithelium regeneration following lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      3.2
      Seconds

  • Question 33 - A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that has become infected. She has a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic polyneuropathy. She has trouble controlling her blood sugar levels, and recently, she was converted to a new insulin regimen that includes intermediate-acting insulin.

      Out of the following, which one is the intermediate-acting insulin?

      Your Answer: Insulin degludec

      Correct Answer: Isophane insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin is used mainly in type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas makes no insulin and can sometimes be prescribed in type 1 diabetes. There are different types of insulin categorized by their onset of action:

      1. Intermediate-acting insulins (isophane insulin NPH):
      – intermediate duration of action, designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin
      – starts their action in 1 to 4 hours
      – peaks in 4 to 8 hours
      – dosing is usually twice a day and helps maintain blood sugar throughout the day
      – Isophane insulin is a suspension of insulin with protamine

      2. Short-acting insulins (regular insulin)
      – starts the action in 30 to 40 minutes
      – peaks in 90 to 120 minutes
      – duration of action is 6 to 8 hours
      – taken before meals, and food is necessary within 30 minutes after its administration to avoid hypoglycaemia

      3. Long-acting insulins (glargine, detemir, degludec)
      – start action in 1 to 2 hours
      – plateau effect over 12 to 24 hours
      – Dosing is usually during the night-time after meals. Their long duration of action helps in reducing the frequency of dosing throughout the day.

      4. Rapid-acting insulins (lispro, aspart, glulisine)
      – start their action in 5 to 15 minutes
      – peak in 30 minutes
      – The duration of action is 3 to 5 hours
      – generally used before meals and always used along with short-acting or long-acting insulins to control sugar levels throughout the day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds

  • Question 34 - A CT pulmonary angiography of a patient with a massive pulmonary embolus will...

    Correct

    • A CT pulmonary angiography of a patient with a massive pulmonary embolus will most likely show which of the following signs?

      Your Answer: Increased alveolar dead space

      Explanation:

      A CT pulmonary angiogram is an angiogram of the blood vessels of the lungs. It is a diagnostic imaging test used to check for pulmonary embolism.

      A pulmonary embolism is caused by a blood clot or thrombus that has become lodged in an artery in the lung and blocks blood flow to the lung. A patient with pulmonary embolism may feel an abrupt onset of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia. Also, pulmonary embolism can result in alveolar dead space.

      Dead space represents the volume of ventilated air that does not participate in gas exchange. The alveolar dead space is caused by ventilation/perfusion imbalances in the alveoli. It is defined as the sum of the volumes of alveoli that are ventilated but not perfused.

      Aside from pulmonary embolism, smoking, bronchitis, emphysema, and asthma are among the other causes of alveolar dead space.

      The other types of dead space are the following: Anatomical dead space is the portion of the airways that conducts gas to the alveoli. This is usually around 150 mL, and there is no possibility of gas exchange in these areas. Physiological dead space is the sum of anatomical and alveolar dead spaces.

      Physiological dead space can account for up to 30% of the tidal volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      17.2
      Seconds

  • Question 35 - Identify the type of graph described below:

    This graph is a scatter plot of...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the type of graph described below:

      This graph is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study's size or precision.

      Your Answer: Forest plot

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A funnel plot is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study’s size or precision. The standard error of the effect estimate is often chosen as the measure of study size and plotted on the vertical axis with a reversed scale that places the larger, most powerful studies towards the top. The effect estimates from smaller studies should scatter more widely at the bottom, with the spread narrowing among larger studies. In the absence of bias and between study heterogeneity, the scatter will be due to sampling variation alone and the plot will resemble a symmetrical inverted funnel. A triangle centred on a fixed effect summary estimate and extending 1.96 standard errors either side will include about 95% of studies if no bias is present and the fixed effect assumption (that the true treatment effect is the same in each study) is valid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds

  • Question 36 - A 30-year-old man presents with piriformis syndrome pain, tingling, and numbness in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with piriformis syndrome pain, tingling, and numbness in her buttocks. He noted that the pain gets worse upon sitting down. He was seen by a physiotherapist and a diagnosis of piriformis syndrome was made.

      Which of the following nerves becomes irritated in piriformis syndrome?

      Your Answer: Nerve to piriformis

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      Piriformis syndrome is a clinical condition of sciatic nerve entrapment at the level of the ischial tuberosity. While there are multiple factors potentially contributing to piriformis syndrome, the clinical presentation is fairly consistent, with patients often reporting pain in the gluteal/buttock region that may shoot, burn or ache down the back of the leg (i.e. sciatic-like pain). In addition, numbness in the buttocks and tingling sensations along the distribution of the sciatic nerve is not uncommon.

      The sciatic nerve runs just adjacent to the piriformis muscle, which functions as an external rotator of the hip. Hence, whenever the piriformis muscle is irritated or inflamed, it also affects the sciatic nerve, which then results in sciatica-like pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      3.8
      Seconds

  • Question 37 - You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her on gentamicin.

      Which statement about gentamicin is true?

      Your Answer: Ototoxicity is a dose-related effect

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.

      Gentamicin is given by injection because it is NOT absorbed orally.

      It is excreted in the kidneys by glomerular filtration

      Gentamicin is not to be used for the treatment of Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoea, or Legionella pneumophila.There is a risk of patient going into shock from lipid A endotoxin release.

      Two of its most notable side effects are hearing loss reversible nephrotoxicity and which are both dose-related and levels should be monitored in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds

  • Question 38 - Regarding the abductor pollicis longus, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the abductor pollicis longus, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It forms part of the thenar eminence

      Correct Answer: It extends the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint

      Explanation:

      Abductor pollicis longus is a muscle found in the posterior compartment of the forearm. It is one of the five deep extensors in the forearm, along with the supinator, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis.

      Abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), which is a continuation of the deep branch of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

      Blood supply to the abductor pollicis longus muscle comes from the interosseous branches of the ulnar artery.

      Acting alone or with abductor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus pulls the thumb away from the palm. More specifically, it produces (mid-) extension and abduction of the thumb at the first metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is seen in activities such as bowling and shovelling.

      Working together with the long and short extensors of the thumb, the muscle also helps to fully extend the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is important for loosening the hand grip, for example, when letting go of objects previously being held. Abductor pollicis longus also helps to abduct the hand (radial deviation) at the radiocarpal joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      21.8
      Seconds

  • Question 39 - The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction is revealed by his ECG. Clopidogrel is one of the medications he takes as part of his treatment.

      Clopidogrel's direct mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel, a thienopyridine derivative, prevents platelet aggregation and cross-linking by the protein fibrin by inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes (inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor (P2Y12 ADP-receptor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 40 - Regarding calcium handling by the kidneys, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding calcium handling by the kidneys, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone upregulates Ca 2+ entry channels and Ca 2+ ATPase pumps in the proximal tubule.

      Correct Answer: Activated vitamin D upregulates Ca 2+ ATPase pumps in the distal tubule.

      Explanation:

      Calcium that is not protein bound is freely filtered in the glomerulus, and there is reabsorption along the nephron.About 70% is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.About 20% is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.This reabsorption is mainly passive and paracellular and driven by sodium reabsorption. Sodium reabsorption causes water reabsorption, which raises tubular calcium concentration, causing calcium to diffuse out of the tubules. The positive  lumen potential also encourages calcium to leave the tubule.About 5 – 10% is reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule.Less than 0.5% is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts.Calcium reabsorption in the distal nephron is active and transcellular and is the major target for hormonal control.Calcium homeostasis is primarily controlled by three hormones: parathyroid hormone, activated vitamin D and calcitonin.Parathyroid hormone acts on the kidneys to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule by activating Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane (and to decrease phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule).Activated vitamin D acts to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule via activation of a basolateral Ca2+ATPase pump (and to increase phosphate reabsorption).Calcitonin acts to inhibit renal reabsorption of calcium (and phosphate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      13.2
      Seconds

  • Question 41 - The least likely feature expected to be seen in a lesion of the...

    Correct

    • The least likely feature expected to be seen in a lesion of the frontal lobe is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Loss of two-point discrimination

      Explanation:

      Lesions in different areas give rise to different symptoms.
      Lesions of the parietal lobe give rise to loss of two-point discrimination.
      Lesions to Broca’s area give rise to expressive dysphasia results from damage
      Lesions to the primary motor cortex give rise to contralateral weakness of the face and arm.
      Lesions to the prefrontal cortex give rise to personality change.
      Lesions to the frontal eye field give rise to conjugate eye deviation towards side of lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      9
      Seconds

  • Question 42 - Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by which of the following routes: ...

    Correct

    • Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Inhalation of spores

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcus neoformans is found in bird droppings and transmission is by inhalation of spores, thus the lung is the primary site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3.1
      Seconds

  • Question 43 - Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of recurrent stomach ulcers. It's possible that the patient has Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

      Which of the following statements about stomach acid is correct?

      Your Answer: The hydrogen ion concentration is roughly 1000 times higher than in blood

      Correct Answer: The proton pump located in the canalicular membrane is vital to its secretion

      Explanation:

      The stomach produces gastric acid, which is a digesting fluid. The stomach secretes about 2-3 litres every day. It is involved in tissue breakdown, the conversion of pepsinogen to active pepsin, and the creation of soluble salts with calcium and iron, and has a pH range of 1.5-3.5. It also serves as an immune system by destroying microbes.

      The following substances are found in gastric acid:
      Water
      Acid hydrochloride
      Pepsinogen
      mucous
      Intrinsic factor

      The parietal cells in the proximal 2/3 (body) of the stomach release gastric acid. The concentration of hydrogen ions in parietal cell secretions is 1-2 million times that of blood. Chloride is released against both a concentration and an electric gradient, and active transport is required for the parietal cell to produce acid.

      The following is how stomach acid is secreted:

      1. Gastric acid secretion is dependent on the H+/K+ ATPase (proton pump) situated in the canalicular membrane. The breakdown of water produces hydrogen ions within the parietal cell. The hydroxyl ions produced in this reaction mix quickly with carbon dioxide to generate bicarbonate ions. Carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme that catalyses this process.

      2. In return for chloride, bicarbonate is carried out of the basolateral membrane. The ‘alkaline tide’ occurs when bicarbonate is released into the bloodstream, resulting in a modest rise in blood pH. The parietal cell’s intracellular pH is maintained by this procedure. Conductance channels carry chloride and potassium ions into the lumen of canaliculi.

      3. Through the action of the proton pump, hydrogen ions are pushed out of the cell and into the lumen in exchange for potassium; potassium is thus efficiently recycled.

      4. The canaliculi accumulate osmotically active hydrogen ions, which creates an osmotic gradient across the membrane, allowing water to diffuse outward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      11.6
      Seconds

  • Question 44 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the extensor pollicis longus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the extensor pollicis longus?

      Your Answer: It forms part of the thenar eminence

      Correct Answer: It is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Extensor pollicis longus is part of the deep extensors of the forearm together with extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, extensor indicis and supinator muscles. It is located on the posterior aspect of forearm, extending from the middle third of the ulna, and adjacent interosseous membrane, to the distal phalanx of the thumb.

      Extensor digitorum is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).

      Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply from the posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches of the anterior interosseous artery.

      The main action of extensor pollicis longus is extension of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. Extension at the metacarpophalangeal joint occurs in synergy with extensor pollicis brevis muscle. When the thumb reaches the full extension or abduction, extensor pollicis longus can also assist in adduction of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 45 - Where on the body is the radial artery pulsation best palpated? ...

    Correct

    • Where on the body is the radial artery pulsation best palpated?

      Your Answer: At the wrist just lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon

      Explanation:

      The radial artery lies lateral to the large tendon of the flexor carpi radialis muscle and anterior to the pronator quadratus at the distal end of the radius. The flexor carpi radialis muscle is used as a landmark in locating the pulse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      1.1
      Seconds

  • Question 46 - About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection:

      Your Answer: 10 - 20%

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Chronic hepatitis and carrier state does not occur in hepatitis A infection and complete immunity is attained after infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      2.9
      Seconds

  • Question 47 - Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration?

      Your Answer: Chemical cardioversion of atrial fibrillation

      Correct Answer: Refractory ventricular fibrillation in cardiac arrest

      Explanation:

      IV Lidocaine is indicated in Ventricular Arrhythmias or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (after defibrillation, attempted CPR, and vasopressor administration)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      1.6
      Seconds

  • Question 48 - Regarding hepatitis C, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding hepatitis C, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Anti-HCV IgG antibodies are diagnostic of acute infection.

      Explanation:

      Anti-HCV IgG antibodies indicate exposure to hepatitis C but this could be acute, chronic or resolved infection. If the antibody test is positive, HCV RNA should be tested for, which if positive indicates that a person has current infection with active hepatitis C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0.5
      Seconds

  • Question 49 - Which of the following medications can block the effect of adrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications can block the effect of adrenaline?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Beta-blockers

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers may reduce the response to adrenaline in the treatment of anaphylactic reactions.

      Noncardioselective beta-blockers in particular can antagonize the broncho dilating and cardio stimulatory effects of adrenaline by blocking beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscles of the bronchial tree and in the heart muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      0.6
      Seconds

  • Question 50 - A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and blood tests done shows a potassium level of 2.4 mmol/L.

      Which is NOT a recognised cause of hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      A plasma potassium less than 3.5 mmol/L defines hypokalaemia.

      Excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and leads to hypokalaemia.

      Gitelman’s syndrome causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia. It is an inherited defect of the distal convoluted tubules.

      Bartter’s syndrome causes hypokalaemic alkalosis. It is a rare inherited defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

      Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia

      Type 4 renal tubular acidosis causes hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (6/11) 55%
Microbiology (4/6) 67%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (8/17) 47%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/2) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/2) 50%
Abdomen And Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (3/9) 33%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Respiratory Physiology (3/3) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (3/4) 75%
Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (2/6) 33%
Gastrointestinal (1/2) 50%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/3) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (2/3) 67%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Renal Physiology (0/1) 0%
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