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  • Question 1 - The uterine artery arises from the? ...

    Correct

    • The uterine artery arises from the?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles...

    Incorrect

    • What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles of a man who has undergone starvation for 7 days?

      Your Answer: Muscle glycogen

      Correct Answer: Serum fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Starvation is the most extreme form of malnutrition. Prolonged starvation can lead to permanent organ damage and can be fatal. Starved individuals eventually lose significant fat and muscle mass as the body uses these for energy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the testis affecting an adult male?

      Your Answer: Embryonal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Seminoma

      Explanation:

      Germ cell tumours represent 90% of primary tumours arising in the testis. They are broadly divided into seminomas and non-seminomas. Seminomas are the most common testicular germ cell tumour seen in 40% cases. The other non-seminomatous histological subtypes include embryonal (25%), teratocarcinoma (25%), teratoma (5%) and pure choriocarcinoma (1%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Femoral branch of the genitofemoral

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.

      The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.

      The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle...

    Correct

    • A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules?

      Your Answer: Actinomycosis

      Explanation:

      Actinomycosis is primarily caused by any of the several members of the bacterial genus Actinomyces. These bacteria are generally anaerobes. And can cause multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Correct

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following changes in the histology of the cell is most...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes in the histology of the cell is most likely to be accompanied by disruption of the cell membrane following an injury?

      Your Answer: Apoptosis

      Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis

      Explanation:

      The process of necrosis ends with the rupture of the cell membrane and the consequent release of the cellular components into the surrounding tissue. Apoptosis, pyknosis and karyorrhexis are not reversible events but the cell membrane remains intact. Cloudy swelling and hydropic changes are also reversible but again the cell membrane remains intact and they are therefore different and distinct from necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      108.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Pathology (1/3) 33%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
General (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Passmed