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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?Your Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide
Explanation:The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.
For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.
Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of the following strategies is recommended?
Your Answer: A Hb of less than 10.5g/l should prompt haematinics and exclusion of haemoglobinopathies
Explanation:Anaemia in pregnancy is most frequently caused by iron or folate deficiency, however, a wide variety of other causes may be considered, especially if the haemoglobin value is below 9.0 g/dL. A haemoglobin level of 11 g/dL or more is considered normal early in pregnancy, with the upper limit of the ‘normal range’ dropping to 10.5 g/dL by 28 weeks gestation. Haemoglobin < 10.5 g/dl in the antenatal period, one should exclude haemoglobinopathies and consider haematinic deficiency. Oral iron is 1st line treatment for iron deficiency. Anaemia not due to haematinic deficiency will not respond to any form of iron. This should be managed with transfusion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Correct
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Question 4
Correct
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A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?
Your Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.
Explanation:Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.
Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.
Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.
Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.
Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. What is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?
Your Answer: Methyldopa
Explanation:Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).
Non-severe Hypertension and asymptomatic at ≥ 20w
(BP ≥ 140/90 and < 160/110mmHg)
• Urine dipstick analysis
• Quantify 24hr urine protein excretion/U-PCR
• Start Methyldopa 500mg 8hrly
• Do Hb, Platelet count, s-Cr, AST/ALT, Urine specimen for MC&S
• If gestational hypertension is diagnosed and BP is well controlled, continue antihypertensive therapy and plan delivery at 38 weeks if all remains well in the interimHypertension with symptoms or severe features
• Admit in High care unit and nurse in left lateral
• Insert urinary catheter and IV line
• Administer IV Ringers lactate (total volume of IV fluid administered should not exceed
80mls/hr)
• Start Magnesium Sulphate
• Control BP
• Perform an ultrasound (if indicated) or assess clinically to determine fetal viability,
EFW (Estimated Fetal Weight) and liquor volume and, if possible
• If GA ≥ 34/40 or EFW ≥ 2200g expedite delivery
• If GA ≥ 26/40 and < 34/40, administer course of steroids to enhance fetal lung maturity
• If patient is stabilised, offer expectant management if < 34 weeks and eligibleAcute severe hypertension (DBP ≥ 110mmHg and or SBP ≥ 160mmHg)
• Administer Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg per os immediately
• Start maintenance therapy with Nifedipine (Adalat XL®) 30-60mg BD orally (maximum
120mg/day)
• Aim for DBP ≤ 110 and SBP ≤ 160mmHg
• If BP is still high after 30 minutes, repeat Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg orally every 30
minutes, for a maximum of three dosages or until BP < 160/110mmHg (contraindication:
tachycardia > 120 bpm, unable to swallow, cardiac lesion).
• If after 30 minutes BP is still high then give Labetalol 20, 40, 80, 80 and
80mg (max 300mg) as bolus doses at 10 minute intervals, checking BP every 10
minutes until BP < 160/110mmHg. Contra-indications: patients with asthma and
ischaemic heart disease. If BP monitoring is not achievable at 10 minute intervals then
patient should be transferred to ICU for a Labetalol infusion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it is hard, irregular and ill defined. The surface of the breast is slightly bruised however, there is no discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?
Your Answer: Fat necrosis
Explanation:Fat necrosis is often a result of a trauma or surgery. In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids combine with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits which are firm lumps with no associated discharge. The given case has a bruise which indicates prior trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following is the primary host for Toxoplasma Gondii?
Your Answer: Cats
Explanation:Toxoplasma gondii, an intracellular protozoan, is the main causative agent for Toxoplasmosis. The primary host for the organism is the domestic cat. Humans can become infected by eating undercooked meat of animals harbouring cysts, consuming water or food contaminated with cat faeces, or through maternal-fetal transmission. Toxoplasmosis can cause complications in pregnancy such as miscarriages and congenital infection can lead to hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental disability and vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which structure reinforces the inguinal canal anterolaterally?
Your Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The anatomy of the inguinal canal is of surgical importance. In the male, the inguinal canal carries the spermatic cord, ilioinguinal nerve and important blood vessels, while in females the inguinal canal holds the round ligament, ilioinguinal nerve and blood vessels. The floor of the inguinal canal is made of the inguinal ligament (a thickened portion of the inguinal ligament), while the posterior wall is made of the transversalis muscle. The anterior wall is made of the external oblique aponeurosis, and the roof is made up of fibres of the internal oblique, transversus abdominis and its aponeurosis, and the conjoint tendon. This means that the anterolateral support structure of the inguinal canal would be the fibres of the internal oblique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old female patient on HRT for the past two years wonders how often she should have breast cancer screenings.
Which of the following responses is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Breast cancer screening every 6 months
Correct Answer: Mammogram every two years until the age of 70
Explanation:Some confusion regarding breast cancer screening arose in 2009 when the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) issued new mammogram guidelines. The task force recommended that screening mammograms be conducted every two years, beginning at age 50, for women with an average risk of breast cancer. For women aged 40 to 49, the decision of whether to have annual mammograms should be based on a patient’s consideration of risks vs. benefits, according to the task force.
There is no evidence that frequent screening for women on HRT helps with early detection of malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately
Your Answer: 750ml/min
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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Regarding the biophysical profile:
Your Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid
Explanation:The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 13
Correct
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Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended by the WHO for diagnosis?
Your Answer: 75g OGTT with 2 hour glucose
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral 75g glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 12mm
Correct Answer: 6mm
Explanation:The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm.
Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?Your Answer: An OCP containing ethinylestradiol and drospirenone
Correct Answer: Condoms
Explanation:This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.
It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.
For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
– Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
– Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
– A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of having headache for the past two week. On examination her blood pressure is 148/100 and heart rate is 90/min.There is swelling over both her ankles, hands and eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. CTG tracing is reassuring and urine dipstick showed proteinuria. Which of the following is considered as the best next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Observation, steroids and antihypertensives
Explanation:Patient in the given case has developed clinical features of mild preeclampsia presented as hypertension, ankle and facial oedema along with proteinuria.
As the fetal lungs are not yet matured, best management in this case would be observing the patient frequently, starting her on steroids and antihypertensive drugs like methyldopa, or labetalol. 31 to 34 weeks of gestation is the optimal gestational age for starting dexamethasone therapy which will help in controlling blood pressure, helps in the maturation of lungs and will also gives time to organise delivery when the lungs are matured.
Immediate C-section is not required at this stage of pregnancy, however a plan for cesarean section must be made to carry it out if the patient develops eclampsia during her stay in the hospital. Immediate vaginal delivery is also not indicated as the pregnancy is far from term. Induced labour will result in fetal demise soon after birth due to the fetal lung immaturity, but immediate delivery has to be considered once the fetal lung attains maturity.
Magnesium Sulphate is indicated only in women with severe pre-eclampsia and even in such cases primary importance is given to blood pressure controlling. Magnesium sulphate is not indicated on this case as the patient is in mild eclampsia.
Even though Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis are indicated in this case, anticoagulants should be avoided considering the emergency need for surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells.
Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?Your Answer: Her sexual partner need to be treated as well
Correct Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months
Explanation:Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organismsBV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it
Your Answer: Secondary Cartilaginous
Explanation:The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint. The cartilaginous joints are divided further into primary and secondary joints. The primary joint is called the synchondrosis. It articulates with the pubis of the other side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for the past one month. Patient has tried various over-the-counter vaginal douche products without any improvement. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, during which she noticed no change in her symptoms. In addition to the discharge, patient also experiences intermittent, crampy abdominal pain along with a feeling of gas passing through her vagina. Patient has had no history of surgeries in the past.
On examination her vital signs seems to be normal. Speculum examination shows a malodorous, tan vaginal discharge with an erythematous patch over the posterior vaginal wall. The cervix is nulliparous and has no visible lesions or areas of friability. A sinus with purulent drainage is found in the perianal skin.
Which among the following conditions will be the most likely underlying cause for this patient’s presentation?Your Answer: Necrosis of malignant cervical epithelium
Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation of the bowel
Explanation:Common risk factors for Rectovaginal fistula are Pelvic radiation, Obstetric trauma, Pelvic surgery, Colon cancer, Diverticulitis and Crohn disease. Uncontrollable passage of gas &/or feces from the vagina is considered the common clinical feature of Rectovaginal fistula.
Diagnosis is done with the help of physical examination, fistulography, Magnetic resonance imaging and Endosonography.This patient, mentioned in the case, presents with malodorous vaginal discharge (ie, stool), gas passing through the vagina, and a posterior vaginal lesion most likely has a rectovaginal fistula, which is an aberrant connection between bowel and vagina. Although development of rectovaginal fistula is commonly associated with obstetric trauma or pelvic surgery, patients without these risk factors are recommended to be evaluated for other additional causes like gastrointestinal conditions.
This patient’s intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and perianal sinus in the setting of a rectovaginal fistula is most likely due to an underlying Crohn disease. Crohn disease, is a transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which predisposes patients to bowel abscess, fissure, and fistula formation. Although the rectum is typically spared in Crohn disease, a non-healing, transmural ulcer present in the anal canal can progress to form a rectovaginal fistula.
In addition to standard Crohn disease management like anti-TNF inhibitors, glucocorticoids, etc patients with a rectovaginal fistula may require surgical correction.Bartholin gland cysts or abscesses can present with malodorous vaginal discharge; however, patients typically have a posterior vulvar mass located at the 4 or 8 o’clock position. In addition, Bartholin gland cysts will not present with crampy abdominal pain or passage of flatus or stool through the vagina.
Hidradenitis which is the chronic occlusion and inflammation of hair follicles, can cause groin abscesses with sinus tracts and associated purulent drainage. However, it is not associated with abdominal pain or malodorous vaginal discharge. In addition, this condition is typically multifocal and located in more than one intertriginous areas like axillary, inguinal or gluteal regions.
Cervical cancer or a retained foreign body in the vagina can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have visible findings like cervical lesion, foreign body etc on speculum examination, and these neither are associated with the passage of flatus through the vagina.
Complications of Crohn disease include perianal disease like abscess, fissure and fistula like rectovaginal fistula, due to transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with a rectovaginal fistula typically presents with malodorous, tan vaginal discharge, passage of flatus through the vagina and a posterior vaginal lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have her contraception method evaluated. The patient has had unpredictable bleeding for the past 8 months since receiving a subdermal progestin implant and begs that it be removed. She used to use combined oral contraceptives and would like to go back to it. The patient has primary hypertension, which she was diagnosed with last year and is effectively controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. She does not take any other medications or have any allergies. Her father and brother both suffer from type 2 diabetes. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs.
24 kg/m2 is her BMI. Blood pressure is 130/75 millimetres of mercury. Physical examinations are all normal. Which of the following is increased by using combination oral contraceptives?Your Answer: Breast fibroadenoma
Correct Answer: Worsening hypertension
Explanation:Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor. These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.
COCs do not increase the risk of developing breast and endometrial cancer, Type 2 DM or breast fibroadenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development of dysuria 5 days earlier. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. With regard to contact tracing what is the recommended action regarding tracing and informing sexual partners in this case?
Your Answer: All sexual partners past 4 weeks
Correct Answer: All sexual partners past 6 months
Explanation:In case a person tests positive for chlamydia, all sexual partners over the period of 6 months should to contacted and started on appropriate antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Correct
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A 34 week pregnant patient complains of itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some blood tests. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?
Your Answer: ALP
Explanation:Pruritus of pregnancy is a common disorder, which occurs in 1 in 300 pregnancies, and presents as excoriated papules on extensor limbs, abdomen
and shoulders. It is more common in women with a history of atopy. Prurigo usually starts at around 25–30 weeks of pregnancy and resolves after delivery,
with no effect on the mother or baby. Treatment is symptomatic with topical steroids and emollients. It occurs due to derangement in the LFTs. ALP can rise to up to 3 times the normal non-pregnant value in the 3rd trimester.
All of the other tests above typically decrease during pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Correct
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You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac defect. She wants to become pregnant in the near future and seeks advice about what risks to her health that this will create. You tell that the highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which of the following cardiac defects:
Your Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation:Eisenmenger’s syndrome is one where there is communication between the systemic and pulmonary system, along with increased pulmonary vascular resistance, either to systemic level or above systemic level (right to left shunt). A would-be mother must be informed that to become pregnant would incur a 50% risk of dying. Even if she survives, fetal mortality approaches 50% as well.
– Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis has a mortality in pregnancy of about 20%. Prevention of reduction in preload is necessary in all obstructive cardiac lesions. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
– Due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy, mitral stenosis can lead to severe pulmonary oedema. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
– Ebstein anomaly is a malformation of the tricuspid valve- It is usually not associated with maternal mortality.
– Atrial-septal defects rarely cause complications in pregnancy, labour, or delivery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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The superficial inguinal ring is an aperture in which structure?
Your Answer: Aponeurosis external oblique
Explanation:The superficial ring is the exit to the inguinal canal. It is a triangular aperture in the aponeurosis of external oblique. The conjoint tendon reinforces the ring posteriorly
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl has been referred as she has amenorrhoea. She reports never having periods. Her mother and 2 sisters menarche was at age 12. On examination you note the patient is 152cm tall and BMI 29.0 and secondary sexual characteristics are not developed. Her FSH is elevated. Prolactin is normal. What is the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kallman Syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner Syndrome
Explanation:Turner syndrome is the most common chromosomal abnormality in females occurring in 1 in 2500 live births. It is characterised by short stature, webbed neck and wide carrying angle. It is also associated with renal, endocrine and CVS abnormalities. In this condition the ovaries do not completely develop and do not produce oestrogen or oocytes, thus no secondary sexual characteristic develop and neither does the girl starts menstruating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Correct
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Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?
Your Answer: 12.50%
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th week of gestation. An hour ago, she experienced constant abdominal pain for an hour and passed blood in her urine. What is the next best investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Ultrasounds can
Correct Answer: Cardiotocograph
Explanation:Cardiotocography (CTG) helps to record the heartbeat of the foetus in parallel to measuring the contractions of the mother’s uterus, this is the most appropriate tool to assess this patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago.
A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound.
What would be the next step of management?Your Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy
Explanation:This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
All of the other choices are incorrect. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche.
Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit.
In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill
Explanation:Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.
A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.
There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?
Your Answer: Starting HRT in a woman showing the earliest signs of AD reduces the rate of progression of the disease.
Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD
Explanation:Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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