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  • Question 1 - Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII:

      Your Answer: Is mainly synthesised by the vascular endothelium

      Correct Answer: Is a serine protease

      Explanation:

      Factor VII (FVII) is a zymogen for a vitamin K-dependent serine protease essential for the initiation of blood coagulation. It is synthesized primarily in the liver and circulates in plasma. Within the liver, hepatocytes are involved in the synthesis of most blood coagulation factors, such as fibrinogen, prothrombin, factor V, VII, IX, X, XI, XII, as well as protein C and S, and antithrombin, whereas liver sinusoidal endothelial cells produce factor VIII and von Willebrand factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 3 - Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus. The structures passing posterior, from nearest to furthest include: tibial, posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial nerve and the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
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  • Question 4 - A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is in the herpes family of viruses and most people will become infected with EBV sometime during their lives. EBV commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, or mono, a contagious viral illness that initially attacks the lymph nodes in the neck and throat. When these tissues become less effective in fighting infection, sore throats, swelling of the nodes and fever may result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve,...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
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  • Question 6 - Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of...

    Incorrect

    • Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of plasma. Which microbial product is responsible for this activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulase

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most pathogenic species and is implicated in a variety of infections.  S. aureus can be identified due to its production of coagulase. The staphylococcal enzyme coagulase will cause inoculated citrated rabbit plasma to gel or coagulate. The coagulase converts soluble fibrinogen in the plasma into insoluble fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. On examination, he was found to have raised blood pressure. Urine examination showed >300 mg/dl proteinuria (4+) and 24-hour urine protein 3.5g. No glucose, blood, nitrites, urobilinogen or casts were present in urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Membranous glomerulonephritis or nephropathy, is a renal disorder with insidious course and usually affects people aged 30-50 years. 85% cases are primary (or idiopathic). The other 15% are secondary to autoimmune conditions like SLE, infections like malaria or hepatitis B, drugs like captopril and NSAIDs, or malignancies (particularly lung or colonic carcinoma). This disease is caused due to circulating immune complexes which are said to form by binding of antibodies to antigens in glomerular basement membrane. This antigens could be endogenous or derived from systemic circulation. This immune complex triggers the complement system, resulting in formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) on glomerular epithelial cells. This further results in release of proteases and oxidants which damage the capillaries making them ‘leaky’. Moreover, the epithelial cells also secrete a mediator to reduce nephron synthesis and distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      0
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following is an anion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an anion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Cations: sodium, magnesium, calcium and potassium

      Anions: chloride, phosphate, bicarbonate, lactate, sulphate and albumin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
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  • Question 9 - A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial temporal

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a branch of the common carotid artery that supplies parts of the neck, head and face. It branches off from the common carotid artery at the level of the thyroid cartilage. The external carotid, at the level of the mandible divides into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal. The superficial temporal artery is the posterior branch of these two arteries. It starts off, somewhat, as a continuation of the external carotid artery at the substance of the parotid gland. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries are branches of the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 11 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 12 - A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following structures was likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Hemianopia or hemianopsia, is the loss of vision of half of the eye or loss of half the visual field. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision or blindness on half of the same side of both eyes (visual field) – either both lefts of the eyes or both rights of the eyes. This condition is mainly caused by cerebrovascular accidents like a stroke that affects the optic radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Actinomycosis

      Explanation:

      Actinomycosis is primarily caused by any of the several members of the bacterial genus Actinomyces. These bacteria are generally anaerobes. And can cause multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 14 - Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing...

    Incorrect

    • Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing the patient to wake up at night is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      The description is typical for duodenal ulcers. There is no pain upon waking in the morning however it appears around mid-morning and is relieved by ingestion of food. The pain also often causes the patient to wake up at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
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  • Question 15 - The chest X-ray of an 10-year-old boy, that presented with low-grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • The chest X-ray of an 10-year-old boy, that presented with low-grade fever and cough, revealed hilar enlargement and parenchymal consolidation in the middle lobes. These X-ray findings are more typical for which of the following diagnoses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Primary pulmonary tuberculosis is seen in patients exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis for the firs time. The main radiographic findings in primary pulmonary tuberculosis include homogeneous parenchymal consolidation typically in the lower and middle lobes, lymphadenopathy, miliary opacities and pleural effusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur...

    Incorrect

    • Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur in which of the following medical conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      As most of the coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver, liver diseases like hepatitis or cirrhosis will depress the coagulation system. Vitamin K deficiency can also decrease the production of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors VII, XI, X and prothrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 17 - A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man who presented to the out patient clinic with chest pain. Such a tumour is likely to compress the following structure:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The boundaries of the posterior mediastinum are: the superiorly through the sternal angle and T4/5, inferiorly, the diaphragm, anteriorly, by the middle mediastinal structures and posteriorly by the spinal cord. Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. The oesophagus is the only structure in the posterior mediastinum among the choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 18 - A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the right breast with enlarged axillary nodes on the same side. She underwent mastectomy and axillary node clearance. These were sent for histopathological examination. They showed no signs of metastasis. What could be cause of this enlargement in the lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinus histiocytosis

      Explanation:

      Sinus histiocytosis also referred to as reticular hyperplasia, refers to the enlargement, distention and prominence of the sinusoids of the lymph nodes. This is a non-specific form of hyperplasia characteristically seen in lymph nodes that drain tumours. The endothelial lining of the lymph node becomes markedly hypertrophied, along with an increase in the number of macrophages which results in the distortion, distention and enlargement of the sinus. In this scenario there is no evidence that an infection or another malignancy could account for the enlargement. Paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia is caused by an immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Female Health
      • Pathology
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  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old man who has been bedridden for a month is prescribed griseofulvin....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man who has been bedridden for a month is prescribed griseofulvin. What class of drugs does griseofulvin belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antifungal

      Explanation:

      Griseofulvin is an antifungal drug. It is administered orally, and it is used to treat ringworm infections of the skin and nails. It binds to keratin in keratin precursor cells and makes them resistant to fungal infections. Griseofulvin works by interfering with fungal mitosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 20 - Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 21 - Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward...

    Incorrect

    • Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left colic flexure

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.

      The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.

      The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.

      The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 23 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following is a likely consequence of severe diarrhoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a likely consequence of severe diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A decrease in the sodium content of the body

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea can occur due to any of the numerous aetiologies, which include infectious, drug-induced, food related, surgical, inflammatory, transit-related or malabsorption. Four mechanisms have been implicated in diarrhoea: increased osmotic load, increased secretion, inflammation and decreased absorption time. Diarrhoea can result in fluid loss with consequent dehydration, electrolyte loss (Na+, K+, Mg2+, Cl–) and even vascular collapse. Loss of bicarbonate ions can lead to a metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 25 - What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby? ...

    Incorrect

    • What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 26 - Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a...

    Incorrect

    • Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver damage

      Explanation:

      Various conditions may prolong the prothrombin time (PT), including: warfarin use, vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, hypofibrinogenemia, heparin infusion, massive blood transfusion and hypothermia. Liver disease causes prolonging of PT due to diminished synthesis of clotting factors. Dark urine colour and jaundice are indicators of the presence of a liver disease in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 27 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.

      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.

      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.

      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 28 - A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed to massive amounts of carbon tetrachloride on her skin as well as inhaled. Which of the following organs is most susceptible to damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is a common agent used in the dry cleaning industry and is thought to cause the formation of free radicals. It causes rapid breakdown of the endoplasmic reticulum due to decomposition of lipids and severe liver cell injury. Within less than 30 mins, hepatic protein synthesis declines, lipid export is reduced due to lack of apoprotein and there is an influx of calcium and cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old man presents to the doctor complaining of pain in his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the doctor complaining of pain in his left calf whilst walking. He says that the pain goes away after a short period of rest but starts again during exercise or walking. The man reveals he has been a smoker for the last 15 years. His blood pressure, blood sugar and cholesterol level are normal. Artery biopsy shows intraluminal thrombosis and vasculitis. What's is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Thromboangiitis obliterans, also known as Buerger’s disease, is a rare type of occlusive peripheral arterial disease, usually seen in smokers, most commonly in men aged 20 to 40. Symptoms most often include intermittent claudication, skin changes, painful ulcers on extremities, pain in the extremities during rest and gangrene. Diagnosis is based on clinical findings, arteriography, echocardiography, and computed tomography angiography. A difference in blood pressure between arms, or between the arms and legs is a common finding. Electrocardiographic findings include nonspecific abnormality or normal results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
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  • Question 30 - A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and...

    Incorrect

    • A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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