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Question 1
Incorrect
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Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies?
Your Answer: 99%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Human Papillomavirus has been is implicated in the development of genital warts as well as, head and neck, anogenital and cervical cancers, with the most important high-risk strains being 16 and 18. Over 50% of women worldwide are thought to possess antibodies against various strains of HPV after natural infection. Many infections are asymptomatic and are cleared within 2 years. Several vaccines have been formulated against HPV, one of which is Gardasil, a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types 6,11, 16,18.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. The lab phone to tell you microscopy and staining shows a gram negative diplococcus. Which organism is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:The most common gram negative diplococci include Neisseria, haemophilus and Moraxella.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?
Your Answer: Internal and Common iliac nodes only
Correct Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.
She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.
Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma
Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma
Explanation:Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.
When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.
Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.
Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.
Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which facultative anaerobic bacteria is most likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is a common infection of the vagina caused by the overgrowth of atypical bacteria, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis, a gram indeterminate bacteria, which is also a facultative anaerobe. Patients often complain of foul-smelling fishy discharge and dysuria. In diagnosing BV, a swab is taken for microscopy, often revealing clue cells. Of the other organisms listed in the options, Neisseria is an obligate anaerobe, while Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular aerobe. Treponema Pallidum is an aerophilic bacteria and Mycoplasma hominis is a pleomorphic parasitic bacterium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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During wound healing collagen alignment along tension lines is part of which phase?
Your Answer: Proliferation
Correct Answer: Remodelling
Explanation:Realignment of collagen is part of the remodelling phase. Remodelling is usually underway by week 3. Maximum tensile wound strength is typically achieved by week 12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?
Your Answer: Occiput
Explanation:A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately
Your Answer: 300ml/min
Correct Answer: 750ml/min
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Progesterone and Oestrogen
Correct Answer: PGE2
Explanation:Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history of deep vein thrombosis. She was on progesterone-only tablets (POP) until five months ago, when she decided to get pregnant. However, the pregnancy turned out to be ectopic. Thankfully, she made it through. She doesn't want to get pregnant again and asks if she may resume taking the tablets.
Which of the following is the best piece of advise you could give?Your Answer: She can take progesterone only pills after 12 months of first ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: She cannot take progesterone only pills
Explanation:Oestrogen-containing contraceptives are not recommended for this woman since she has a history of DVT. This is most likely why she was started on POP instead of standard combination tablets prior. Progesterone is also contraindicated with a history of ectopic pregnancy and should never be used again. Barrier approaches, for example, could be applied in this woman’s case.
The following are absolute contraindications to taking just progesterone pills:
– Pregnancy
– Breast cancer
– Vaginal bleeding that hasn’t been diagnosed
– Ectopic pregnancy history or a high risk of ectopic pregnancyProgesterone-only pills have the following relative contraindications:
– Active viral hepatitis
– Severe chronic liver disease
– Malabsorption syndrome
– Severe arterial disease
– Successfully treated breast cancer more than 5 years ago
– Concomitant use of hepatic enzyme inducing medications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?
Your Answer: 70%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.
Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.
Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?Your Answer: MMR vaccine
Correct Answer: Contact tracing
Explanation:The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.
As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.
NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.
As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister.
What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?
Your Answer: Endometriosis.
Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.
Explanation:It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.
While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a 6cm x 5cm cystic mass of the right ovary with multiple septa noted and varying degrees of echogenicity within locules. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Serous cystadenoma
Correct Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma
Explanation:The characteristics of the mucinous cystic adenoma of the ovaries is the presence of a large tumour which is multicystic and the penetration of the peritoneum into the cavities forming septas. The serous tumours can only be differentiated on the bases of the contents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days
Explanation:The embryonic pole becomes visible on transvaginal ultrasound at around 5 and a half to 6 weeks gestation when it measures around 3mm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual activity results in 5-6 mL of blood. She had never had a cervical cancer screening. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis is normal.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Do a Cervical Screening test as well liquid base cytology
Explanation:Postcoital bleeding refers to spotting or bleeding unrelated to menstruation that occurs during or after sexual intercourse. It can be a sign of serious underlying pathology and is usually alarming for patients. About one-third of patients also have abnormal uterine bleeding that is not associated with coitus and about 15 percent have dyspareunia. The most serious cause of postcoital bleeding is cervical cancer. About 11 percent of women with cervical cancer present with postcoital bleeding. The patient should undergo cervical cancer screening according to local guidelines. Postcoital bleeding is not an indication for cervical cytology if previous screening tests are up-to-date and normal.
Cervical screening and liquid based cytology are superior to transvaginal ultrasound.
Coagulation profile can be done if cytology is normal to rule out bleeding diathesis.
Tranexamic acid can be considered once malignancy is ruled out and cause of bleeding has been established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental abruption. Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for developing PPH in this woman?
Your Answer: DIC
Explanation:Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in pregnancy is the most common cause of an abnormal haemorrhage tendency during pregnancy and the puerperium. Although pregnancy itself can cause DIC, its presence is invariably evidence of an underlying obstetric disorder such as abruptio placentae, eclampsia, retention of a dead foetus, amniotic fluid embolism, placental retention or bacterial sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: 4mg MgSO4 IV as a bolus
Correct Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.
Explanation:The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.
She complains of a fever and purulent vaginal discharge.
She add that's four days ago, she underwent a suction curettage for an unwanted pregnancy which occurred after a university party.
On examination, she has a temperature of 38.4°C.
Which organism is the most probable cause of her presentation?Your Answer: Mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.
Explanation:The most probable cause of her presentation is a mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.
Her most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) as suggested by a purulent vaginal discharge alongside a fever which indicates a systemic infection.
The most common causative organisms in PID after sexual activity are chlamydia and gonorrhoea, of which chlamydia has a much higher prevalence.
Chlamydia has also been shown to be present in about 15% of subjects who underwent pregnancy termination with no constant sexual partner.
PID occurring after a gynaecologic surgical procedure is most commonly a result of mycoplasma or vaginal pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for at your clinic. She describes bilateral pain that began gradually and was accompanied by fever, vaginal discharge, and mild dysuria.
Her pelvic examination demonstrates uterine, adnexal, and cervical motion tenderness.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the pain?Your Answer: PID
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) refers to acute and subclinical infection of the upper genital tract in women, involving any or all of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries; this is often accompanied by involvement of the neighbouring pelvic organs. It results in endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, peritonitis, perihepatitis, and/or tubo-ovarian abscess.
Lower abdominal pain is the cardinal presenting symptom in women with PID. The abdominal pain is usually bilateral and rarely of more than two weeks’ duration. The character of the pain is variable, and in some cases, may be quite subtle. The recent onset of pain that worsens during coitus or with jarring movement may be the only presenting symptom of PID. The onset of pain during or shortly after menses is particularly suggestive.
Other non-specific complaints include urinary frequency and abnormal vaginal discharge.
Ovarian cyst, uterine leiomyoma, appendicitis or ectopic pregnancy do not present with fever and vaginal discharge although tenderness is noted in appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, these options do not explain the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The main support of the uterus is provided by:
Your Answer: The broad ligament
Correct Answer: The cardinal ligament
Explanation:The cardinal ligament (or Mackenrodt’s ligament, lateral or transverse cervical ligament) is a major ligament of the uterus. It is located at the base of the broad ligament of the uterus. It attaches the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall by its attachment to the Obturator fascia of the Obturator internus muscle, and is continuous externally with the fibrous tissue that surrounds the pelvic blood vessels. It thus provides support to the uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She states that she never had such symptoms prior. The pain is not felt at the time of penetration, but appears to hurt deeper in the vagina.
She was recently pregnant with her first child and delivery was three months ago. She did not have an episiotomy or sustain any vaginal lacerations during delivery. She denies any vaginal bleeding since her lochia had stopped two months ago. She is still breastfeeding her child.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her dyspareunia?Your Answer: Unrecognised mid-vaginal laceration.
Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginal epithelium.
Explanation:This is a patient that recently gave birth and is still breastfeeding presenting with dyspareunia. The most likely cause would be a thin atrophic vaginal epithelium. This is very common presentation and is due to the low oestrogen levels due to the prolactin elevation from breastfeeding.
An unrecognised and unsutured vaginal tear should have healed by this time and should not be causing issues.
Endometriosis tends to resolve during a pregnancy, but if this was the issue, it would have caused dyspareunia prior to pregnancy.
Vaginal infective causes of dyspareunia, such as monilial or trichomonal infections, are rare in amenorrhoeic women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient pyrexia occurring within 45 minutes of administration?
Your Answer: Carboprost
Correct Answer: Dinoprostone
Explanation:Dinoprostone is associated with a transient pyrexia. This typically normalises within 4 hours of stopping treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?
Your Answer: Rubella
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.
What is the best piece of advice?Your Answer: IUCD
Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms
Explanation:OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.
Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.
OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.
It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87 mmHg. You considered Pre-eclampsia. What symptom might be expected in a patient with uncomplicated pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer: Headache
Explanation:Extreme headache, vision defects, such as blurring of the eyes, rib pain, sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet are all consistent with pre-eclampsia. Women with the mentioned symptoms should have their blood pressure checked immediately. They should also be checked for proteinuria.
Diarrhoea is not related to pre-eclampsia. Pruritus would be more related to pregnancy cholestasis. Meanwhile, bruising and abnormal LFTs are common in complicated pre-eclampsia but not in an uncomplicated one.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Correct
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You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most common enzyme deficiency?
Your Answer: 21-hydroxylase
Explanation:Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia leads to the virilization of the foetus. It occurs due to an enzyme deficiency in the corticosteroid production pathway i.e. 21-hydroxylase which converts progesterone to deoxycorticosterone. The reduced levels of corticosteroids results in the negative feedback loop that leads to adrenal hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing of her progesterone blood test. She has regular 35 day menstrual cycles. When testing for ovulation what day of her cycle should she have the test on?
Your Answer: 21
Correct Answer: 28
Explanation:The mid-luteal progesterone sample should be taken 7 days before the expected period i.e. day 21 in a 28-day cycle or day 28 of a 35 day cycle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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