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  • Question 1 - Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by the peritoneum?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Of the organs listed, the spleen is the only organ that is completely intraperitoneal, that is entirely in the peritoneum. Other completely intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, liver, appendix and the small intestines. The kidney, Inferior vena cava, aorta and the suprarenal glands are all retroperitoneal organs. The pancreas and the duodenum are partially retroperitoneal, with the tail of the pancreas in the peritoneum found in the splenorenal ligament while only the first part of the duodenum is intraperitoneal. For the intraperitoneal organs remember SALTD SPRSS
      S = Stomach
      A = Appendix
      L = Liver
      T = Transverse colon
      D = Duodenum (only the 1st part)
      S = Small intestines
      P = Pancreas (only the tail)
      R = Rectum (only the upper 3rd)
      S = Sigmoid colon
      S = Spleen
      For retroperitoneal, just remember SADPUCKER:
      S = suprarenal glands
      A = Aorta and IVC
      D = Duodenum (all but the 1st part)
      P = Pancreas (all but the tail)
      U = Ureter and bladder
      C = Colon (ascending and descending)
      K = Kidneys
      E = Oesophagus
      R = Rectum (Lower two-thirds)
      For secondarily retroperitoneal remember ‘Pussy Cat Dolls“:
      P = Pancreas
      C = Colon (only ascending and descending)
      D = Duodenum (only parts 2-4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through...

    Correct

    • A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).

      The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.

      The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.

      The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.

      The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old...

    Incorrect

    • The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?

      Your Answer: It has numerous aggregated lymph nodules

      Correct Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules

      Explanation:

      The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?

      Your Answer: Hepatic

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Correct

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      90.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Explanation:

      The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.

      The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.

      The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.

      The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.

      The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on...

    Incorrect

    • A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on the skin of her mons pubis. Which nerve supplies the skin of the mons pubis?

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Correct Answer: Anterior labial

      Explanation:

      Anterior labial branch is the terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve that innervates the skin of the mons pubis in women and the skin of the anterior scrotum in men.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve innervates the upper medial thigh.

      The iliohypogastric innervates muscles of the abdominal wall.

      The subcostal nerve innervates muscles of the abdominal wall and the skin of the lower abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and...

    Correct

    • The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and the duodenum, is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery together with the right gastroepiploic artery form the two branches of the gastroduodenal artery which divides at the lower border of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Common hepatic

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The normal location of the major duodenal papilla: ...

    Correct

    • The normal location of the major duodenal papilla:

      Your Answer: Descending part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The major duodenal papilla is on the descending portion of the duodenum on the medial side, about 7-10cm from the pylorus. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile ducts unite and open by a common orifice on the summit of the duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site....

    Correct

    • A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Correct

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the...

    Correct

    • During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.

      The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.

      The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.

      The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.

      The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.

      Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the pancreases, accidentally injured a structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancrease which bled out. Which structure is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancreas is the superior mesenteric vein. The neck of the pancreas lies anterior to the superior mesenteric vein, which joins with the splenic vein to form the portal vein.

      The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) is also located in proximity to the neck of the pancreas. Specifically, the SMA emerges from the abdominal aorta just below the level of the pancreas and passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas before it descends into the mesentery to supply the intestines. Thus, both the superior mesenteric vein and the superior mesenteric artery are key vascular structures related to the posterior aspect of the neck of the pancreas.

      Bleeding out would suggest an arterial injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater...

    Correct

    • During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater curvature of the stomach. Where do the short gastric arteries branch from?

      Your Answer: Splenic artery

      Explanation:

      Short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery at the end or from its terminal divisions. They are about 5 or 7 in number, passing from the left to the right in between the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament to be distributed along the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was...

    Correct

    • A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing features include:

      1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine

      2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.

      3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen: ...

    Correct

    • Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen:

      Your Answer: Oesophageal hiatus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is located in the muscular part of the diaphragm a T10 and is above, in front and a little to the left of the aortic hiatus. It transmits the oesophagus, the vagus nerves and some small oesophageal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed...

    Incorrect

    • During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:

      Your Answer: Is an abnormal persistence of the urachus

      Correct Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.

      An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.

      Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.

      Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Incorrect

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic symphysis

      Correct Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      168.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the...

    Correct

    • Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the inguinal ligament?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The inguinal ligament is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis and extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle from whence it is reflected backward and laterally to attach to the pectineal line and form the lacunar ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.

      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.

      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.

      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.

      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42 year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) underwent an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) underwent an abdominal aortic angiography which revealed that his inferior mesenteric artery was occluded. If this patient showed no symptoms, the most likely reason is that the area the inferior mesenteric artery supplies, must be supplied by collateral blood flow from which arteries?

      Your Answer: Right and middle colic

      Correct Answer: Left and middle colic

      Explanation:

      The arterial branches that form an anastomosis between the superior mesenteric artery and the inferior mesenteric artery are the left colic artery and the middle colic artery. The middle colic artery is the most distal branch of the superior mesenteric artery while the left colic forms the most proximal branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. These two arteries will give collateral blood flow in the case that the inferior mesenteric artery gets occluded. The superior mesenteric artery gives off the following branches; ileocolic, appendicular, ileal artery, right colic and middle colic arteries. The left colic, sigmoid and superior rectal arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery. The marginal artery branches off directly from the abdominal aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Correct

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the...

    Correct

    • A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?

      Your Answer: Posterior rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left...

    Correct

    • A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left middle suprarenal artery originate?

      Your Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      Middle suprarenal arteries arise from either side of the abdominal aorta, opposite the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?

      Your Answer: Hepatoduodenal ligament

      Correct Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (21/30) 70%
Anatomy (21/30) 70%
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