-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for two weeks. Urine analysis reveals proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this child?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The presentation is suggestive of nephrotic syndrome. A trial of corticosteroids is the first step in treatment of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome. Diuretics are useful in managing symptomatic oedema. Cyclosporin and cyclophosphamide are indicated in frequently relapsing and steroid dependant disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 52-year-old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 51 year-old teacher presents complaining of numerous falls. He states he has difficulty walking up stairs, and he thinks it is because of his weak legs rather than blackouts. He is hypertensive and has suffered chronic back pain for many years. He has smoked for many years as well and has a chronic smokers cough. Upon examination, he has weakness of hip flexion and particularly knee extension. He is unable to keep his fingers flexed against force, with the right being weaker than the left. There are no sensory abnormalities and reflexes are preserved bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy
Correct Answer: Inclusion body myositis
Explanation:The pattern of muscle involvement seen with quadriceps and long-finger flexors is characteristic of inclusion body myositis, an inflammatory myopathy. Polymyositis is likely to cause a predominantly proximal weakness, associated with muscle pain. The signs and symptoms are not consistent with upper cord compression, as there would likely be sensory signs, reflex changes, and possible urinary symptoms. Motor neuron disease cannot be ruled out, but there are no findings of upper motor neuron or bulbar features.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old female has developed recurrent breathlessness after having a mitral valve replacement 13 years ago. Her husband has also noticed a prominent pulsation in her neck. She has also complained of ankle swelling and pain in the abdomen. Choose the most probable diagnosis from the list of options.
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Multiple symptoms point towards tricuspid regurgitation: recurrent breathlessness (if the cause if LV dysfunction); a prominent pulsation in her neck (giant V waves); pain in the abdomen (pain in liver upon exertion); and ankle swelling.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 80-year-old male was found on the floor. His blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg. His core temperature was 31ºC. His FBC and serum electrolytes were within normal limits. Which of the following would be found in his ECG?
Your Answer: Long QT interval
Explanation:Hypothermia is defined as a core body temperature of < 35 °C.
Hypothermia may produce the following ECG changes:
-Bradyarrhythmia
-Osborne Waves (= J waves)
-Prolonged PR, QRS and QT intervals
-Shivering artefact
-Ventricular ectopics
-Cardiac arrest due to VT, VF or asystole -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:
fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3- 6)
sodium 148 mmol/l (137-144)
potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2-2.6).
However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.
What could be the most probable cause?Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms.
Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?Your Answer: MRI whole spine
Explanation:An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.
In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.
The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
4. Nocturnal pain -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old alcoholic is admitted with portal hypertension. The wedged hepatic venous pressure is recorded. This pressure is reflective of which part of the hepatic vascular system?
Your Answer: Portal vein
Correct Answer: Sinusoids
Explanation:The wedged hepatic venous pressure is a reflection of the portal venous pressure in the hepatic sinusoids. This is a fact to remember. Here is a great but concise explanation as to why: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18695309
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old male was admitted with a right sided pneumothorax. A chest drain was inserted just below the 4th rib in the midclavicular line. What is the structure at risk of damage during the above procedure?
Your Answer: Liver
Correct Answer: Intercostal artery
Explanation:From the given answers, the most suitable answer is the intercostal artery. However the most vulnerable structure is the intercostal nerve, then intercostal artery and finally intercostal vein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male patient with atrial fibrillation, who was on warfarin came to the clinic with an INR report of 7. Upon questioning it was revealed that he had been started on another drug recently, which was the reason for the prolonged INR. Which of the following drugs cause this?
Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Cimetidine
Explanation:Cimetidine inhibits hepatic microsomal activity, which may cause reduced metabolic clearance of warfarin and augments its anticoagulant effect. Pravastatin doesn’t affect the warfarin metabolism. Other drugs are enzyme inducers which will increase warfarin clearance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old retired journalist known to have prostatic carcinoma presents to the ED complaining of pain in the spine and the onset of severe lower-leg weakness accompanied by a loss of sensation. On examination, he is found to have percussion tenderness of his spine, loss of sensation up to the umbilicus and a distended bladder. He has markedly reduced power of the lower legs with hyperreflexia. Which of the following should not be part of your management of this patient?
Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Correct Answer: Spinal X-rays
Explanation:Acute cord compression is a medical emergency. Typically, signs of segmental damage at the level of compression are usually combined with corticospinal tract dysfunction (e.g., hyperreflexia, Babinski’s sign and weakness) and sensory deficits below the level of compression. Symptoms include spinal pain that precedes the development of weak legs and sensory loss. There may be loss of bladder (and anal) sphincter control, manifesting as hesitancy, frequency and, finally, painless retention.
Spinal X-rays are rarely diagnostic. MRI is usually the investigation of choice and should not be delayed, but if not available consider doing a CT scan and myelography to confirm cord compression and fully define the level and extent of the lesion. If malignancy is the cause, it is important to give dexamethasone (oral or intravenous) while considering therapy more specific to the cause. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5, after being stabbed in the back. Which sign would you expect to see by assessing the patient's sensory function and muscle strength?
Your Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis
Explanation:Depending on the level of SCI, patients experience paraplegia or tetraplegia. Paraplegia is defined as the impairment of sensory or motor function in lower extremities. Patients with incomplete paraplegia generally have a good prognosis in regaining locomotor ability (,76% of patients) within a year. Complete paraplegic patients, however, experience limited recovery of lower limb function if their NLI is above T9. The spinothalamic tract is the one responsible for sensory information such as pain or temperature. However, it decussates at the same level the nerve root enters the spinal cord, meaning that the sensory loss will be contralateral. However, the dorsal column carries sensory fibres for fine touch and vibration and it decussates at the medulla which means that the sensory loss will be ipsilateral. The corticospinal tract is responsible for motor functions and it decussates at the medulla, meaning that the motor function loss will be ipsilateral.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
What is the most appropriate next step if a consultant is nominated at a directorate meeting to undertake the next clinical audit?
Your Answer: Identify standards
Correct Answer: Needs assessment
Explanation:Clinical audit is defined as a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. The first step has to be initial assessment and identifying the issues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethical & Legal
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 52-year-old chef presents to the ED with acute visual changes. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On neurological examination, his upper and lower limbs are normal however he has a homonymous hemianopia with central preservation. Where is the most likely cause of his problems within the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Optic radiation
Explanation:Lesions in the optic radiation can cause a homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, as a result of collateral circulation offered to macular tracts by the middle cerebral artery.
Lesions in the optic tract also cause a homonymous hemianopia, but without macular sparing.
Lesions in the optic chiasm, optic nerve, and temporal lobe cause bitemporal hemianopia, ipsilateral complete blindness, and superior homonymous quadrantanopia respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning headaches. CT scan of the brain shows multiple ring enhancing lesions. Which of the following is the cause of this finding?
Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Toxoplasmosis is a disease caused by the obligate intracellular parasite Toxoplasma gondii. Transmission occurs either through ingestion of cysts found, for example, in raw meat or cat faeces, or from mother to foetus through the placenta.
The clinical presentation depends on the patient’s immune status: In immunocompetent individuals, 90% of cases are harmless and asymptomatic, with the remaining 10% displaying mild mononucleosis-like symptoms. In immunosuppressed patients (e.g., those who are HIV-positive), infection may result in cerebral toxoplasmosis (headache, confusion, focal neurologic deficits) or toxoplasma chorioretinitis (eye pain, reduced vision).
Treatment is indicated for immunosuppressed patients, infected mothers, congenital toxoplasmosis, and immunocompetent patients with more severe symptoms. The treatment of choice is usually a combination of pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and leucovorin (folinic acid), with the exception of new infections during pregnancy, which are treated with spiramycin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pinprick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion.
Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?Your Answer: Facet joint hypertrophy between C6 and C7
Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1
Explanation:The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.Trunk:
– Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
– Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
– Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
Upper arm:
– Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
Forearm
– Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
– Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
– Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
Hand
– Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
– Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male came in with chills and dilated pupils, which were withdrawal signs and symptoms of a certain drug. Which of the following can cause above presentation?
Your Answer: Cocaine
Correct Answer: Heroine
Explanation:Both cocaine and heroine withdrawal cause dilated pupils. Heroine withdrawal causes chills.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old gentleman with a long history of gout presents with loin pain. Other past history of note includes an ileostomy after bowel surgery. There is no history of weight loss from malabsorption syndrome after his bowel surgery. Excretion urography reveals evidence of bilateral renal stones.
What is the most likely composition of his renal stones?Your Answer: Calcium phosphate
Correct Answer: Uric acid stones
Explanation:Uric acid stones will most likely be found in this case because of the patient’s long history of gout. Additionally, studies have shown that ileostomy patients have an increased risk for the development of uric acid stones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 22-year-old man who has recently returned from a trip to Far East presents with sore eyes and symmetrical joint pain in his knees, ankles and feet. Labs reveal an elevated ESR. The synovial fluid aspirate is sterile and has a high neutrophil count. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthropathy
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 51-year-old man speaks fast and does not take enough breaths before speaking again. He ignores interruptions and does not want to pause in between. What best describes this kind of speech?
Your Answer: Pressure of speech
Explanation:A pressured speech is too fast for the listener to understand and is very difficult to interrupt.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Methemoglobinemia
Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Regarding Giardia Lamblia which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy
Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption
Explanation:Giardiasis also known as travellers diarrhoea is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is an anaerobic parasite affecting the small intestine. It can lead to diarrhoea, flatulence, abdominal cramps, malodourous greasy stools and intestinal malabsorption. It can also cause bloody diarrhoea. The investigation of choice is stool examination for trophozoites and cysts. It is treated by metronidazole and tinidazole as first line therapies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.
Your Answer: Lymphedema
Explanation:Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old female underwent pelvic surgery. She was given low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) after the procedure. After a week, she complained of sudden chest pain and difficulty in breathing. Her ECG and CXR were normal. What is the most suitable option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keep on low molecular weight heparin and do CT. pulmonary angiography.
Explanation:CT pulmonary angiography will decide the proper cause of her symptoms. Until that has happened LMWP should be continued.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female presents to her GP with joint pain , fever, a butterfly rash and fatigue. She has marked peripheral oedema. She is found to be hypertensive, in acute renal failure, low albumin levels and proteinuria.
Â
A renal biopsy is performed and reveals focal glomerulonephritis with subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits.
Â
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lupus nephritis Class III
Explanation:This case presents with characteristic symptoms of SLE and with her renal biopsy results of focal glomerulonephritis, this is clearly Class III SLE.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A young man presents to the clinic with recurrent episodes of breathlessness. Past medical history reveals recurrent episodes of colicky abdominal pain for the past three years.
On examination, he has a productive cough with foul smelling sputum.
Investigations show: Sputum culture with Heavy growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Haemophilus influenzae.
Chest x-ray: Tramline and ring shadows.
What is his diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a multisystemic, autosomal recessive disorder that predominantly affects infants, children, and young adults. CF is the most common life-limiting genetic disorder in whites, with an incidence of 1 case per 3200-3300 new-borns in the United States.
People with CF can have a variety of symptoms, including:
Very salty-tasting skin
Persistent coughing, at times with phlegm
Frequent lung infections including pneumonia or bronchitis
Wheezing or shortness of breath
Poor growth or weight gain in spite of a good appetite
Frequent greasy, bulky stools or difficulty with bowel movements
Male infertilitySigns of bronchiectasis include the tubular shadows; tram tracks, or horizontally oriented bronchi; and the signet-ring sign, which is a vertically oriented bronchus with a luminal airway diameter that is 1.5 times the diameter of the adjacent pulmonary arterial branch.
Bronchiectasis is characterized by parallel, thick, line markings radiating from hila (line tracks) in cylindrical bronchiectasis. Ring shadows represent dilated thick-wall bronchi seen in longitudinal section or on-end or dilated bronchi in varicose bronchiectasis.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the key bacterial agent of cystic fibrosis (CF) lung infections, and the most important pathogen in progressive and severe CF lung disease. This opportunistic pathogen can grow and proliferate in patients, and exposure can occur in hospitals and other healthcare settings.
Haemophilus influenzae is regularly involved in chronic lung infections and acute exacerbations of CF patients
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma for the past 3 years. He presents with lethargy, muscle aches and pain in his lower back.
Â
Arterial blood sampling reveals a metabolic acidosis. Serum potassium is 3.1 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), and urine pH is 5.1 (> 5.3).
Â
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type II
Explanation:This case is most likely RTA type II, due to decreased proximal bicarbonate reabsorption, which leads to metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hyperchloremia, and <6 urine pH .
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old male presented with right sided hip pain and was found to have a fracture of right hip. On examination he had bilateral pedal oedema and was also found to be deaf. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling . Hip pain is most common when the acetabulum and proximal femur are involved. The most common neurologic complication is deafness as a result of involvement of the petrous temporal bone. Bilateral pedal oedema is due to associated heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which type of myocardial infarction has the worst prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior wall MI complicated with continuing left ventricular failure and an exercise tolerance of 3 METS on a predischarge exercise test
Explanation:Exercise tolerance of 3 METS on a predischarge exercise test is the most important indicator of a poor post-MI prognosis. Other similar features that predispose the individual to a poor prognosis are resuscitation from a secondary ventricular tachyarrhythmia after the fist 24h and poor left ventricular function on echo.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following serum tumour markers is the most essential for monitoring the clinical progression of a man with teratoma of the testis following chemotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein
Explanation:Testicular teratomas are best monitored with the following tumour markers: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), beta-hCG, and PLAP (placental like isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase). For ovarian tumours, we use CA125, pancreatic tumours we use CA19-9, CA15-3 for breast carcinoma and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colonic tumours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Men's Health
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
