00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old asthmatic patient's symptoms is deteriorating and patient is moved to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old asthmatic patient's symptoms is deteriorating and patient is moved to the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department. A loading dose of IV aminophylline is administered and her symptoms begin to improve. You are asked to check her theophylline levels after an appropriate time period.

      How long should you wait before taking her blood sample be taken?

      Your Answer: 1-2 hours

      Correct Answer: 4-6 hours

      Explanation:

      Plasma theophylline concentration is usually measured five days after starting oral treatment and three days after each dose adjustment.

      A blood sample to check theophylline concentration should usually be taken after 4-6 hours if an IV dose of aminophylline was given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 46-year-old male who is suffering from a chest infection. You decide to start giving...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male who is suffering from a chest infection. You decide to start giving the patient antibiotics, however he is allergic to penicillin. You consult with one of your co-workers about the best choice of antibiotic to give.

      From the following choices, which is considered an example of bacteriostatic antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics that are bactericidal kill bacteria, while antibiotics that are bacteriostatic limit their growth or reproduction. The antibiotics grouped into these two classes are summarized in the table below:

      Bactericidal antibiotics
      Bacteriostatic antibiotics

      Vancomycin
      Metronidazole
      Fluoroquinolone, such as ciprofloxacin
      Penicillins, such as benzylpenicillin
      Cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone
      Co-trimoxazole
      Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline
      Macrolides, such as erythromycin
      Sulphonamides, such as sulfamethoxazole
      Clindamycin
      Trimethoprim
      Chloramphenicol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following nerves innervates the gastrocnemius muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves innervates the gastrocnemius muscle?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The gastrocnemius is innervated by the anterior rami of S1 and S2 spinal nerves, carried by the tibial nerve into the posterior compartment of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a primary action of aldosterone: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a primary action of aldosterone:

      Your Answer: Renal sodium reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) to cause sodium retention and potassium loss. It increases the synthesis of transport mechanisms in the distal nephron including the Na+pump, Na+/H+symporter, and Na+and K+channels in principal cells, and H+ATPase in intercalated cells. Na+(and thus water) reabsorption and K+and H+secretion are thereby enhanced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

    Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding infective diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure

      Explanation:

      E. coli may cause several different gastrointestinal syndromes. Based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), and enteroadherent, which includes diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) and enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC). These five categories are sometimes
      collectively referred to as enterovirulent E. coli or diarrheagenic E. coli.

      Norwalk virus is part of the Caliciviridae family of viruses which are single-stranded RNA viruses and are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the US.

      Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis
      in infants and children. With the introduction in 2006 of a human-bovine rotavirus vaccine (RV5; RotaTeq, Merck), a delay in the onset of rotavirus
      season was seen. RotaTeq is a series of three oral vaccines beginning at 6 to 12 weeks of age. A second vaccine, Rotarix (RV1; GlaxoSmithKline, Middlesex, England), was approved in June 2008.

      Cryptosporidium causes an illness characterized by abdominal cramping, watery diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia. This organism is resistant to chlorine, so public swimming pools can be the source of an outbreak.

      G. lamblia has a worldwide distribution and has frequently been identified as the causative agent of outbreaks of gastroenteritis and traveller’s diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the...

    Correct

    • Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the gallbladder?

      Your Answer: Neck

      Explanation:

      There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic mitral valve presents to you with fever and an episode of expressive dysphasia that lasted around 30 minutes. There is no history of known drug allergies On examination you note a systolic murmur and you suspect it is infective endocarditis.

      Which antibacterial agents would be the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.

      Risk factors include:
      Prosthetic heart valves
      Congenital heart defects
      Prior history of endocarditis
      Rheumatic fever
      Illicit intravenous drug use

      In the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:
      Persistent fever
      Embolic phenomena
      New or changing murmur

      A combination of vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin is advised if the patient has a cardiac prostheses, is penicillin allergic, or if methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected. In this case the patient has a prosthetic valve making this the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.

      Flucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis. This patient has prostheses and this is not the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.

      Other features that may be present include heart failure, splenomegaly, finger clubbing, renal features (haematuria, proteinuria, nephritis), and vasculitic features (splinter haemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth’s spots).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate...

    Correct

    • The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate for a patient who is in a lot of pain. You discover that you are unable to prescribe it due to a contra-indication after evaluating the patient.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer: Age under 12 years

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a mild opiate that can be used to treat mild to moderate pain when other pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen have failed. It can also be used to treat diarrhoea and coughs that are dry or painful.

      The use of all opioids is contraindicated for the following reasons:
      Respiratory depression (acute)
      Patients who are comatose
      Head injury (opioid analgesics impair pupillary responses, which are crucial for neurological evaluation)
      Intracranial pressure has risen (opioid analgesics interfere with pupillary responses vital for neurological assessment)
      There’s a chance you’ll get paralytic ileus.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Because of the significant risk of respiratory side effects in children under the age of 12, it is not recommended for children under the age of 12.

      Patients of any age who have been identified as ultra-rapid codeine metabolizers (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolizers)

      Because codeine can pass through breast milk to the baby and because mothers’ ability to metabolise codeine varies greatly, it is especially dangerous in breastfeeding mothers.

      If other painkillers, such as paracetamol or ibuprofen, fail to relieve acute moderate pain in children over the age of 12, codeine should be used. In children with obstructive sleep apnoea who received codeine after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, a significant risk of serious and life-threatening adverse reactions has been identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis two years ago. Her symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis two years ago. Her symptoms have been steadily deteriorating, with no intervals of remission in sight.

      Which of the following aspects of nerve conduction is disrupted by multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Saltatory conduction

      Explanation:

      Local currents propagate action potentials down the axons of neurons. This local current flow following depolarisation results in the depolarisation of the neighbouring axonal membrane, and when this region approaches the threshold, more action potentials are generated and so forth. Due to the refractory period, portions of the membrane that have recently depolarized will not depolarize again, resulting in the action potential only being able to go in one direction.

      The square root of axonal diameter determines the velocity of the action potential; the axons with the biggest diameter have the quickest conduction velocities. When a neuron is myelinated, the speed of the action potential rises as well.
      The myelin sheath is an insulating coating that surrounds certain neural axons. By increasing membrane resistance and decreasing membrane capacitance, the myelin sheath improves conduction. This enables faster electrical signal transmission via a neuron, making them more energy-efficient than non-myelinated neuronal axons.
      Electrical impulses are quickly transmitted from one node to the next, causing depolarization of the membrane above the threshold and triggering another action potential, which is then transmitted to the next node. An action potential is rapidly conducted down a neuron in this manner. Saltatory conduction is the term for this.
      Multiple sclerosis is an example of a clinical disorder in which the myelin sheath is affected. It is an immune-mediated disorder in which certain nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord become demyelinated. The ability of some areas of the nervous system to properly transmit action potentials is disrupted by demyelination, resulting in a variety of neurological symptoms and indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient presents with a cough, productive of green sputum and fever. He...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a cough, productive of green sputum and fever. He was commenced on antibiotics 4 days earlier, but his condition has worsened. There is a documented history of penicillin allergy, and the GP prescribed erythromycin.

      Erythromycin exert its pharmacological effect by binding to?

      Your Answer: The 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

      Explanation:

      Macrolides are bacteriostatic antibiotics. They act by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibit translocation, therefore, inhibiting protein synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A man presents to the emergency department with a hand laceration that has...

    Incorrect

    • A man presents to the emergency department with a hand laceration that has damaged the opponens digiti minimi muscle.

      All of the following statements regarding the opponens digiti minimi muscle is considered correct, except:

      Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Correct Answer: It is innervated by the superficial branch of the ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Opponens digiti minimi (ODM) is an intrinsic muscle of the hand. It’s a triangular muscle that extends between the hamate bone (carpal bone) and the 5th metacarpal bone. It forms the hypothenar muscle group together with the abductor digiti minimi and flexor digiti minimi brevis, based on the medial side of the palm (hypothenar eminence). These muscles act together in moving the little finger. The opponens digiti minimi is responsible for flexion, lateral rotation and opposition of the little finger.
      Its origin is the hook of hamate and flexor retinaculum. It inserts into the medial border of 5th metacarpal bone. It is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, which stems from the brachial plexus (C8, T1 spinal nerves).
      Its blood supply is by the deep palmar branch of ulnar artery and deep palmar arch, which is the terminal branch of the radial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The following statements concerning lung compliance is true EXCEPT?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements concerning lung compliance is true EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Lung compliance describes the distensibility of the lungs and the chest wall

      Correct Answer: Lung compliance is described by the equation: C = ∆ P/ ∆V, where C = compliance, P = pressure, and V = volume

      Explanation:

      Lung compliance is the change in volume per unit change in distending pressure.

      It is calculated using the equation:
      Lung compliance = ΔV / ΔP
      Where:
      ΔV is the change in volume
      ΔP is the change in pleural pressure.

      Lung compliance is inversely proportional to stiffness and elastance.

      It comprises static (no airflow) and dynamic (during continuous breathing) components.

      It is the slope of the pressure-volume curve.

      Lung compliance describes the distensibility of the lungs and the chest wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You come across a 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis. Today...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis. Today she is complaining of epigastric pain. She has blood tests done especially to review her cholecystokinin levels.

      Which of the following is a cholecystokinin (CCK) releasing site?

      Your Answer: S-cells in the upper small intestine

      Correct Answer: I-cells in the upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      The I-cells in the duodenum generate and release cholecystokinin (CCK), a peptide hormone. It has a crucial role in the digestion process as a hormonal regulator.

      CCK cells are concentrated in the proximal small intestine, and when food is consumed, the hormone is produced into the bloodstream. The presence of partly digested lipids and proteins in the duodenum is one of the most powerful stimulus for CCK synthesis.

      CCK’s key physiological effects include:

      Encourages the pancreas to release digesting enzymes into the small intestine.
      Stimulates gallbladder contraction and sphincter of Oddi relaxation, resulting in bile delivery into the duodenum.
      Gastric emptying is inhibited, and gastric acid output is reduced.
      Satiety induction is a process that involves inducing a feeling of fullness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure when performing a carotid sinus massage?

      Your Answer: Hyoid Bone

      Correct Answer: Thyroid cartilage

      Explanation:

      The common carotid artery runs through the neck and divides into internal and external carotid arteries on both sides near the upper thyroid cartilage. In emergency situations, carotid sinus massage is also used to diagnose or treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.

      During the procedure, to maximize access to the carotid artery, the patient is put in a supine position with the neck extended (i.e. elevating the chin away from the chest). The carotid sinus is normally positioned inferior to the angle of the jaw, near the arterial impulse, at the level of the thyroid cartilage. For 5 to 10 seconds, pressure is administered to one carotid sinus.

      Although pulsatile pressure applied in a vigorous circular motion may be more effective, continuous pressure is preferred since it is more reproducible. If the predicted reaction is not obtained, the operation is repeated on the opposite side after a one- to two-minute wait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 23 year old woman has noticed her skin seems to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old woman has noticed her skin seems to have a yellow tinge and presents to the emergency room. On examination she is found to have jaundice and mild splenomegaly, and blood tests show that her Hb is 79 g/L. She only takes one regular medication. The medication that is most likely to cause haemolytic anaemia is:

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid

      Explanation:

      Mefenamic acid is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is used short-term (7 days or less) to treat mild to moderate pain in adults and children who are at least 14 years old. Mefenamic acid is also used to treat menstrual pain. It has only minor anti-inflammatory properties and has occasionally been associated with diarrhoea and haemolytic anaemia. If these occur, treatment should be discontinued.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which cervical interspace is most likely injured if a patient presents with difficulty...

    Correct

    • Which cervical interspace is most likely injured if a patient presents with difficulty of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, pain in the right shoulder and lateral arm, and decreased sensation over the deltoid and lateral arm?

      Your Answer: C4-C5

      Explanation:

      In the setting of cervical radiculopathy, because the nerve root of a spinal nerve is compressed or otherwise impaired, the pain and symptomatology can spread far from the neck and radiates to arm, neck, chest, upper back and/or shoulders. Often muscle weakness and impaired deep tendon reflexes are noted along the course of the spinal nerve.

      Cervical radiculopathy is almost always unilateral, although, in rare cases, both nerves at a given level may be impacted. Those rare presentations can confound physical diagnosis and require acceleration to advanced imaging especially in cases of trauma. If there is nerve impingement, the affected side will be reduced relative to the unaffected side. Reduction in strength of muscles innervated by the affected nerve is also significant physical finding.

      For a C4-C5 injury, the following symptoms may present:

      Weakness in the deltoid muscle (front and side of the shoulder) and upper arm
      Shoulder pain
      Numbness along the outside of the upper arm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease:

      Your Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.
      HIV is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room after suffering a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room after suffering a traumatic fall while showering. Upon physical examination, the attending physician noted a hyperextended neck, 1/5 muscle strength in both upper extremities, 4/5 muscle strength in both lower extremities, and variable loss in sensation. The patient is placed in the wards for monitoring. For the next 24 hours, anuria is noted.

      Which of the following spinal cord injuries is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      Central cord syndrome is the most common type of incomplete cord injury and almost always occurs due to a traumatic injury. It results in motor deficits that are worse in the upper extremities as compared to the lower extremities. It may also cause bladder dysfunction (retention) and variable sensory deficits below the level of injury.

      The majority of these patients will be older and present with symptoms after a fall with hyperextension of their neck. On examination, patients will have more significant strength impairments in the upper extremities (especially the hands) compared to the lower extremities. Patients often complain of sensory deficits below the level of injury, but this is variable. Pain and temperature sensations are typically affected, but the sensation of light touch can also be impaired. The most common sensory deficits are in a cape-like distribution across their upper back and down their posterior upper extremities. They will often have neck pain at the site of spinal cord impingement.

      Bladder dysfunction (most commonly urinary retention) and priapism can also be signs of upper motor neuron dysfunction. The sacral sensation is usually preserved, but the clinician should assess the rectal tone to evaluate the severity of the compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note...

    Incorrect

    • On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note that both osmolarities are decreased. There urine osmolality does not increase with fluid ingestion.

      What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      As part of the investigation of hyponatraemia, serum osmolality is commonly requested in combination with urine osmolality to aid diagnosis.

      When:
      Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is decreased with no intake of fluid, the causes are
      Hyponatraemia
      Overhydration
      Adrenocortical insufficiency
      Sodium loss (diuretic or a low-salt diet)

      Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is increased the causes include:
      Dehydration
      Hyperkalaemia
      Hyperglycaemia
      Hyponatremia
      Mannitol therapy
      Diabetes mellitus
      Alcohol ingestion
      Congestive heart failure
      Renal disease and uraemia

      Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is decreased the usual cause is diabetes insipidus

      Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is increased the usual cause is syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through the nephron?

      Your Answer: Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary→Vasa recta

      Explanation:

      The nephron’s blood flow is as follows:
      Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta – Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta

      The kidney is the only vascular network in the body with two capillary beds. With arterioles supplying and draining the glomerular capillaries, higher hydrostatic pressures at the glomerulus are maintained, allowing for better filtration. A second capillary network at the tubules enables for secretion and absorption in the tubules, as well as concentrating urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain that has been going on for the past 12 hours. Upon further investigation, a troponin test was ordered and the results came back negative. He was given a discharge order from the emergency department.

      Which of the following aspects of this test is considered the most significant in the decision made that it was safe to send the patient home?

      Your Answer: Negative predictive value

      Correct Answer: Likelihood ratio

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma:

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgA is the major Ig in secretions, particularly from the gastrointestinal tract (but also in saliva, tears, sweat and breast milk).
      IgE is important for mast cell degranulation in allergic and antiparasitic response. In the allergic response, the plasma cell produces IgE-antibodies, which, like antibodies of other immunoglobulin isotypes, are capable of binding a specific allergen via its Fab portion.
      IgG is the most abundant in plasma (comprising 80% of normal serum immunoglobulin) and the main circulatory Ig for the secondary immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding bile, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding bile, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The sphincter of Oddi contracts to force bile from the gallbladder into the duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Bile is secreted by hepatocytes. It is isotonic and resembles plasma ionically. This fraction of bile is called the bile acid-dependent fraction. As it passes along the bile duct, the bile is modified by epithelial cells lining the duct by the addition of water and bicarbonate ions; this fraction is called the bile acid-independent fraction. Overall, the liver can produce 500 – 1000 mL of bile per day. The bile is either discharged directly into the duodenum or stored in the gallbladder. The bile acid-independent fraction is made at the time it is required i.e. during digestion of chyme. The bile acid-dependent fraction is made when the bile salts are returned from the GI tract to the liver, and is then stored in the gallbladder until needed. The gallbladder not only stores bile but concentrates it by removing non-essential solutes and water, leaving bile acids and pigments, mainly by active transport of Na+into the intercellular spaces of the lining cells which, in turn, draws in water, HCO3-and Cl-from the bile and into the extracellular fluid. Within a few minutes of a meal, particularly when fatty foods have been consumed, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the bile duct. The sphincter of Oddi is relaxed, allowing the bile to pass into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)...

    Correct

    • The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD).

      Which cell reabsorbs sodium more in the late DCT and CD?

      Your Answer: Principal cells

      Explanation:

      The main Na+ reabsorbing cells in the late distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct are the principal cells. These make up the majority of the tubular cells.

      The exchange is driven by the Na.K.ATPase pumps on the basolateral membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of less than 3 weeks?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      C. diphtheriae, which is the causative agent of diphtheria, is carried in the upper respiratory tract and spread by droplet infection or hand-to-mouth contact. The incubation period averages 2 to 5 days.

      Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.

      The incubation for Hepatitis A virus is approximately 1 month.

      The incubation period for Hepatitis C ranges from 2 weeks to 6 months.

      The period from infection to development of anti-HIV antibodies is usually less than 1 month but may be up to 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.

      Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Nicardipine

      Correct Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction.

      Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.

      An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.

      Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?

      Your Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)
      2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)
      3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)
      4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L).

      Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults.

      Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults.

      In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine.

      Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A tumour compresses the jugular foramen of a 50-year-old patient. Compression of several...

    Correct

    • A tumour compresses the jugular foramen of a 50-year-old patient. Compression of several nerves in the jugular foramen will result in which of the following complications?

      Your Answer: Loss of gag reflex

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve, which is responsible for the afferent pathway of the gag reflex, the vagus nerve, which is responsible for the efferent pathway of the gag reflex, and the spinal accessory nerve all exit the skull through the jugular foramen. These nerves are most frequently affected if the jugular foramen is compressed. As a result, the patient’s gag reflex is impaired.

      The vestibulocochlear nerve is primarily responsible for hearing. The trigeminal nerve provides sensation in the face. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of face expression (including those responsible for closing the eye). Tongue motions are controlled mostly by the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      All opioids have the potential to cause:
      Gastrointestinal effects – Nausea, vomiting, constipation, difficulty with micturition (urinary retention), biliary spasm
      Central nervous system effects – Sedation, euphoria, respiratory depression, miosis
      Cardiovascular effects – Peripheral vasodilation, postural hypotension
      Dependence and tolerance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.

      Which antibiotic is associated with the greatest risk of causing Clostridium Difficile diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) occurs. About 80% of Clostridium Difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:
      Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever.

      CDI is the most severe consequence of antibiotic treatment and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
      Risk for CDI has been found to be greatest with clindamycin followed by fluoroquinolones Tetracyclines are not associated with risk for CDI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You examine a 72-year-old man who has recently begun bumetanide treatment for worsening...

    Correct

    • You examine a 72-year-old man who has recently begun bumetanide treatment for worsening heart failure.

      Which of these statements about bumetanide is correct?

      Your Answer: It has better intestinal absorption than furosemide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat congestive heart failure. It is frequently used in patients who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide.

      It has a potency of about 40 times that of furosemide, with a 1 mg dose being roughly equivalent to a 40 mg dose of furosemide.
      Seizures are not known to be triggered by bumetanide. In fact, it lowers the concentration of neuronal chloride, making GABA’s action more depolarizing, and it’s currently being tested as an antiepileptic in the neonatal period.

      It takes effect after 1 hour of oral administration, and diuresis takes 6 hours to complete.

      Bumetanide absorbs much better in the intestine than furosemide. Because it has a higher bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following microbes is spread by a vector: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following microbes is spread by a vector:

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector for Plasmodium falciparum transmission. Treponema pallidum is transmitted through sexual transmission or direct skin contact. Clostridium perfringens is spread by direct skin contact or through oral-faecal route. The oral-faecal pathway is how Vibrio cholerae spreads. Mycoplasma tuberculosis is spread via the airborne route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A type II error occurs when: ...

    Correct

    • A type II error occurs when:

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false.

      Explanation:

      A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is wrongly accepted when it is actually false and we conclude that there is no evidence of a difference in effect when one really exists (a false negative result).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Gastrin release from antral G-cells is inhibited by all but which one of...

    Correct

    • Gastrin release from antral G-cells is inhibited by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Vagal stimulation

      Explanation:

      Gastrin secretion is inhibited by:
      Low gastric pH (negative feedback mechanism)
      Somatostatin
      Secretin
      Gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP)
      Cholecystokinin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - The QRS duration of a broad-complex tachyarrhythmia is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The QRS duration of a broad-complex tachyarrhythmia is:

      Your Answer: Greater than 0.12 s

      Correct Answer: Greater than or equal to 0.12 s

      Explanation:

      It’s a broad-complex tachycardia if the QRS duration is 0.12 seconds or more. It’s a narrow-complex tachycardia if the QRS complex is shorter than 0.12 seconds. The QRS duration should be examined if the patient with tachyarrhythmia is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 17-year-old student presents with a headache and petechial rash. A diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old student presents with a headache and petechial rash. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected, with a causative agent of Neisseria meningitidis.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Neisseria meningitidis?

      Your Answer: The antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsule is the main determinant of its pathogenicity

      Explanation:

      N. meningitidis is a Gram-negative cocci and can be found as a commensal as well as an invasive pathogen. It is an important etiologic agent of endemic and epidemic meningitis and meningococcaemia and rarely pneumonia, purulent arthritis, or endophthalmitis. N. meningitidis has also been recovered from urogenital and rectal sites as a result of oral-genital contact. Meningococcal carriage, usually involving nonencapsulated strains, may cause an increase in protective antibody against the pathogenic strains. Of the 12 meningococcal encapsulated serogroups, A, B, C, Y, and W-135 account for most cases of disease in the world. N. meningitidis possesses a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic and serves as an important virulence factor.

      It can be found on the mucosal surfaces of the nasopharynx and oropharynx in 30% of the human population. The organism is transmitted by close contact with respiratory droplet secretions from a carrier to a new host. Only a few newly colonized hosts develop meningococcal disease, with the highest incidence being found in infants and adolescents.

      The quadrivalent vaccine Menactra is a polysaccharide-protein conjugated vaccine with antigens to serogroups A, C, Y, and W-135. This conjugate vaccine is licensed for people 2 to 55 years old. This vaccine does not protect against meningitis caused by serogroup B because group B polysaccharide is a very poor immunogen in humans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce...

    Incorrect

    • The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce protective antibodies. How do these antibodies protect the body from tetanus?

      Your Answer: Opsonise cells of C. tetani

      Correct Answer: Neutralise the protein exotoxin of C. tetani

      Explanation:

      C. Tetanospasmin, an exotoxin produced by tetani, is responsible for the neurotoxic consequences of tetanus.

      The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce protective antibodies that neutralize the tetanus toxin.

      It induces active immunization against Clostridium tetani exotoxin via toxoid-induced Ab generation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae:

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Infection of the genital mucosa by Neisseria gonorrhoeae involves attachment to and invasion of epithelial cells. Initial adherence of gonococci to columnar epithelial cells is mediated by type IV pili assembled from pilin subunit PilE proteins and pilus tip-associated PilC proteins, it then invades the epithelial layer, triggering a local acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is...

    Correct

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is diagnosed in a male patient with a history of recurrent hyponatraemia.

      Which of the following produces ADH?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), commonly known as vasopressin, is a peptide hormone that controls how much water the body retains.

      It is produced in the magnocellular and parvocellular neurosecretory cells of the paraventricular nucleus and supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus from a prohormone precursor. It is subsequently carried to the posterior pituitary via axons and stored in vesicles.

      The secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary is regulated by numerous mechanisms:
      Increased plasma osmolality: Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in osmolality and trigger ADH release.

      Stretch receptors in the atrial walls and big veins detect a decrease in atrial pressure as a result of this (cardiopulmonary baroreceptors). ADH release is generally inhibited by atrial receptor firing, but when the atrial receptors are stretched, the firing reduces and ADH release is promoted.
      Hypotension causes baroreceptor firing to diminish, resulting in increased sympathetic activity and ADH release.
      An increase in angiotensin II stimulates angiotensin II receptors in the hypothalamus, causing ADH production to increase.

      The main sites of action for ADH are:
      The kidney is made up of two parts. ADH’s main job is to keep the extracellular fluid volume under control. It increases permeability to water by acting on the renal collecting ducts via V2 Receptors (via a camp-dependent mechanism). This leads to a decrease in urine production, an increase in blood volume, and an increase in arterial pressure as a result.

      Vascular system: Vasoconstriction is a secondary function of ADH. ADH causes vasoconstriction via binding to V1 Receptors on vascular smooth muscle (via the IP3 signal transduction pathway). An increase in arterial pressure occurs as a result of this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections: ...

    Correct

    • Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections:

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Granulomatous inflammation is typically seen when an infective agent with a digestion-resistance capsule (e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis) or a piece of inert foreign material (such as suture or glass) is introduced into the tissue. A transient acute inflammatory response occurs and when this is ineffective in eradicating the stimulus, chronic inflammation occurs.

      Tuberculosis is the prototype of the granulomatous diseases, but sarcoidosis, cat-scratch disease, lymphogranuloma inguinale, leprosy, brucellosis, syphilis, some mycotic infections, berylliosis, reactions of irritant lipids, and some autoimmune diseases are also included

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of the humerus after falling from his bike. Examination suggests an axillary nerve injury. The clinical features expected to be seen in this patient are:

      Your Answer: Weakness of shoulder abduction

      Explanation:

      Axillary nerve injury results in:
      1. weakness of arm abduction (paralysis of deltoid),
      2. weakness of lateral rotation of the arm (paralysis of teres minor)
      3. loss of sensation over the regimental badge area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      84.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium...

    Correct

    • Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium and phosphate control. Vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Which enzyme hydroxylates 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?

      Your Answer: 1-alpha-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      The hormone-active metabolite of vitamin D is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (commonly known as calcitriol). Its activities raise calcium and phosphate levels in the bloodstream.

      In the presence of UVB light, 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted to cholecalciferol in the epidermal layer of the skin, resulting in 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Cholecalciferol is then converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the endoplasmic reticulum of liver hepatocytes by 25-hydroxylase (calcifediol).

      Finally, 1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney. The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is induced by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.

      The following are the primary effects of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol:
      Calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine is increased.
      Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is increased.
      Increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.
      Increases the action of osteoclastic bacteria (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Inhibits the action of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the kidneys (negative feedback)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is the pathophysiology of a phaeochromocytoma: ...

    Correct

    • What is the pathophysiology of a phaeochromocytoma:

      Your Answer: Catecholamine-secreting tumour

      Explanation:

      Phaeochromocytomas are catecholamine-secreting tumours which occur in about 0.1% of patients with hypertension. In about 90% of cases they arise from the adrenal medulla. The remaining 10%, which arise from extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue, are termed paragangliomas. Common presenting symptoms include one or more of headache, sweating, pallor and palpitations. Less commonly, patients describe anxiety, panic attacks and pyrexia. Hypertension, whether sustained or episodic, is present in at least 90% of patients. Left untreated phaeochromocytoma can occasionally lead to hypertensive crisis, encephalopathy, hyperglycaemia, pulmonary oedema, cardiac arrhythmias, or even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.
    The piriformis muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.
      The piriformis muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Correct Answer: Nerve to piriformis

      Explanation:

      Piriformis is innervated by the nerve to piriformis, which is a direct branch from the sacral plexus (S1 and S2).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics: ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Penicillins and the other ß-lactam antibiotics are bactericidal. They produce their antimicrobial action by preventing cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. They, therefore, inhibit cell wall synthesis.
      The integrity of the ß-lactam ring is essential for antimicrobial activity. Many bacteria (including most Staphylococci) are resistant to benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin because they produce enzymes (penicillinases, ß-lactamases) that open the ß-lactam ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in...

    Correct

    • What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion of the parietal optic radiation:

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the parietal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
      A lesion of the temporal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Approximately what percentage of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule: ...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately what percentage of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: 60 - 70%

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate is freely filtered at the glomerulus. Less than 0.1% of filtered bicarbonate is normally excreted in the urine (if plasma [HCO3-] increases, maximum tubular transport is exceeded and some HCO3-is excreted in urine). About 80% of bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. For each H+secreted into the lumen, one Na+and one HCO3-are reabsorbed into the plasma. H+is recycled so there is little net secretion of H+at this stage. A further 10 – 15% of HCO3-is similarly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. In the early distal tubule, H+secretion is predominantly by Na+/H+exchange but more distally, the Na+gradient is insufficient so secretion is via H+ATPase and H+/K+ATPase in intercalated cells, which contain plentiful carbonic acid.

      As secreted H+is derived from CO2, new HCO3-is formed and returns to the blood.H+secretion is proportional to intracellular [H+] which itself is related to extracellular pH. A fall in blood pH will therefore stimulate renal H+secretion. In the proximal tubule secretion of H+serves to reclaim bicarbonate from glomerular filtrate so it is not lost, but in the distal nephron, secretion leads to net acid excretion and generation of new bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - An outbreak of acute pneumonia occurs in military recruits living in one barrack...

    Correct

    • An outbreak of acute pneumonia occurs in military recruits living in one barrack and only in those persons located near the air conditioner. Epidemiologic surveillance results in isolation of the causal organism from the patients and from the drip pans of the air conditioner. The organism is weakly Gram-negative. The most likely organism is:

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.

      The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:
      Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 days
      Cough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)
      Pleuritic chest pain
      Haemoptysis
      Headache
      Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
      Anorexia
      Legionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.
      The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.
      Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.
      Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The patient's hemodynamics are normal. You intended to prescribe amiodarone to him, but you can't because he has a contraindication.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to using amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Long QT syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sinus node disease

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.

      The use of amiodarone is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Conduction disturbances that are severe (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sinus node disease is a condition that affects the lymph nodes in (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sensitivity to iodine
      Blockage of the Sino-atrial heart valve (except in cardiac arrest)
      Bradycardia in the sinuses (except in cardiac arrest)
      Thyroid disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - The most important Complement protein for antigen opsonization is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most important Complement protein for antigen opsonization is:

      Your Answer: C3a

      Correct Answer: C3b

      Explanation:

      Phagocytosis is largely responsible for depletion of cells coated with antibodies. Cells opsonized by IgG antibodies are recognized by phagocyte Fc receptors, which are specific for the Fc portions of some IgG subclasses. In addition, when IgM or IgG antibodies are deposited on the surfaces of cells, they may activate the complement system by the classical pathway. Complement activation generates by-products, mainly C3b and C4b, which are deposited on the surfaces of the cells and recognized by phagocytes that express receptors for these proteins. The net result is phagocytosis of the opsonized cells and their destruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (7/12) 58%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Infections (4/4) 100%
Anatomy (7/10) 70%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (2/2) 100%
Physiology (9/13) 69%
Microbiology (6/9) 67%
Specific Pathogen Groups (4/5) 80%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular Physiology (1/2) 50%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Physiology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (3/3) 100%
Renal Physiology (3/3) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/2) 50%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (3/3) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (1/1) 100%
Principles (1/2) 50%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (1/2) 50%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Passmed