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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2-3 white blood cells/mm3.
       
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      54.2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 57-year-old, alcoholic male was admitted to the medical ward for an ascitic...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old, alcoholic male was admitted to the medical ward for an ascitic tap. The ascitic fluid was found to be yellow in colour. Which of the following had most likely lead to this observation?

      Your Answer: Decompensated cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Uncomplicated cirrhotic ascites is usually translucent. If the patient is deeply jaundiced, the fluid might appear yellow/brown.
      Turbidity or cloudiness of the ascites fluid suggests that infection is present and further diagnostic testing should be performed.
      Pink or bloody fluid is most often caused by mild trauma, with subcutaneous blood contaminating the sample.
      Bloody ascites is also associated with hepatocellular carcinoma or any malignancy-associated ascites.
      Milky-appearing fluid usually has an elevated triglyceride concentration. Such fluid, commonly referred to as chylous ascites, can be related to thoracic duct injury or obstruction or lymphoma, but it is often related primarily to cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      40.7
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer: Trauma

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:
      – Idiopathic
      – Trauma, excessive manicuring
      – Infection: especially fungal
      – Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis
      – Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s
      – Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
      – Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).
      – Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      24.9
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about her short-term memory problems for the past 10 months. He has to remind her to take her medications and she has had two incidents of falling over in the last 10 months. Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of above condition?

      Your Answer: Progressive loss of function

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is dementia. To differentiate Alzheimer disease and vascular dementia, the progressive loss of function is important. Progressive loss of function is usually associated with vascular dementia and rest of the responses are associated with Alzheimer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      38.3
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old male admitted with acute onset retrosternal chest pain was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male admitted with acute onset retrosternal chest pain was diagnosed with unstable angina. Which of the following will mostly contribute to the acute risk stratification of this patient?

      Your Answer: Troponin testing

      Explanation:

      Troponin testing is the most important investigation in risk stratification. Troponin positive patients should be referred for urgent coronary revascularization as troponin indicates cardiac cell damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      49.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      95.9
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.
      He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Analgesic misuse headache

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      101.8
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is...

    Correct

    • Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test.
      Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?

      Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.

      In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.

      In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
      A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      54
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is reviewed. On...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is reviewed. On examination, there is evidence of cor pulmonale with a significant degree of pedal oedema. His FEV1 is 44%. During a recent hospital stay his pO2 on room air was 7.4 kPa.

      Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in this patient?

      Your Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Assess the need for oxygen therapy in people with:
      – very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 below 30% predicted)
      – cyanosis (blue tint to skin)
      – polycythaemia
      – peripheral oedema (swelling)
      – a raised jugular venous pressure
      – oxygen saturations of 92% or less breathing air.

      Also consider assessment for people with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30-49% predicted).

      Consider long-term oxygen therapy for people with COPD who do not smoke and who:
      have a partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) below 7.3 kPa when stable or have a PaO2 above 7.3 and below 8 kPa when stable, if they also have 1 or more of the following:
      – secondary polycythaemia
      – peripheral oedema
      – pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      66.5
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?

      Your Answer: Flushing attacks may be associated with bronchoconstriction, periorbital oedema, salivation and excessive lacrimation

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients

      Explanation:

      For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      42.6
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman presents with drooping on the left side of her mouth,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with drooping on the left side of her mouth, hearing defect, and partial in-coordination of movements and loss of sensation over her entire face. She is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. What is the most likely anatomical site affected?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord

      Correct Answer: Brain stem

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve 5, 7, and 8 involvement suggest a lesion in the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      37.2
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes...

    Correct

    • Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?

      Your Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      78.8
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?

      Your Answer: Neutralises lithium ions

      Correct Answer: Increases urine alkalinity

      Explanation:

      The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.

      Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.

      Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

      Features of toxicity
      Coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
      Hyperreflexia
      Acute confusion
      Seizure
      Coma

      Management
      Mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
      Haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
      Sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      28.8
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33 g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?

      Your Answer: No action

      Correct Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      43.5
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's...

    Incorrect

    • From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's syndrome of an adult?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      The main cardiovascular manifestations associated with Marfan’s syndrome are aortic dilatation and mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      58.8
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes/day for the last 28 years. He presents...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes/day for the last 28 years. He presents with a 2-month history of drooping eyelid, hoarseness of voice, and a palpable mass in the right supraclavicular fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Smoking history and symptoms suggest a Pancoast tumour as the diagnosis. Compression of sympathetic ganglion can cause ptosis, involvement of the supraclavicular lymph node results in a palpable mass in the right supraclavicular fossa, and voice hoarseness related to laryngeal nerve compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      33
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?

      Your Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      14.7
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old gentleman known with rheumatoid arthritis presented with a 5 day history...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old gentleman known with rheumatoid arthritis presented with a 5 day history of red, painful swollen knee joint. He was afebrile and the joint was warm on touch. Hamstring muscles were spastic. Which of the following tests should be done next?

      Your Answer: Joint aspiration for cytology and culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis can affect any joint of the body. Aspirate will reveal increased TLC, and it will be sterile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      29.8
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old son who has recently been diagnosed by type-1 diabetes. He has an identical twin brother and she is concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.
      What advice would you give regarding his future risk?

      Your Answer: GAD antibodies in the unaffected child are not predictive of the risk of diabetes

      Correct Answer: He has a 30-50% future risk of developing type-1 diabetes

      Explanation:

      The frequency of type-1 diabetes is higher in siblings of diabetic parents (e.g., in the UK 6% by age 30) than in the general population (in the U.K. 0.4% by age 30), while disease concordance in monozygotic (identical) twins is about 40% i.e. the risk that the unaffected twin will develop diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      37.4
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old female presents with fatigue and xerostomia. Bloods tests reveal the following:


    Hb 13.9...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female presents with fatigue and xerostomia. Bloods tests reveal the following:


      Hb 13.9 g/dl
      WBC 6.1 *109/l
      Platelets 246 *109/l

      Bilirubin 33 µmol/l
      ALP 292 u/l
      ALT 47 u/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary Sjogren's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      With a bilirubin of 33, automatically the diagnosis from the choices listed is primary biliary cirrhosis or autoimmune hepatitis, not SLE, mono, or Primary Sjogren’s Syndrome. With autoimmune hepatitis, however, you would not expect such a high bilirubin and would expect very high AST/ALT, which here is just mildly elevated. This makes primary biliary cirrhosis the most likely answer. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. The dry mouth is likely due to Sicca Syndrome, which occurs in 70% of cases of PBC, but with these liver function tests, PBC is most the likely answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      92.9
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old female, with 5 day history of fever and pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female, with 5 day history of fever and pain in the right iliac fossa, presented with acute abdominal pain and rigidity. Past medical, surgical and drug history were unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid volvulus

      Correct Answer: Perforated diverticulum

      Explanation:

      A diverticulum is a sac like protrusion from the colonic wall. Inflammation leads to diverticulitis characterised by abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. In complicated cases. It may lead to perforation, leading to abdominal tenderness, rigidity and guarding. Ischemic colitis presents with sudden onset abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. Intussusception leads to abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and signs of intestinal obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      71.3
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old patient was diagnosed with glioblastoma multiforme, after he was investigated for...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old patient was diagnosed with glioblastoma multiforme, after he was investigated for seizures. The cell of origin of this tumour is?

      Your Answer: Astrocytes

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common anaplastic malignant tumour of the glial cells. It is a mixture of poorly differentiated anaplastic astrocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      14
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained:
      TSH < 0.05 mu/l
      Free T4 29 pmol/l

      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      43.7
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - An echocardiogram of a 50-year-old male patient showed an infarct in the anterolateral...

    Incorrect

    • An echocardiogram of a 50-year-old male patient showed an infarct in the anterolateral aspect of the left side of the heart and apex. An angiogram was then done. Obstruction of which of the following arteries is the cause of this myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Left main stem

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery is responsible for supplying the entire left side of the heart, however, it divides into the left anterior descending artery which supplies the apex of the heart and the interventricular septum, and the left circumflex artery which supplies the posterolateral part of the left ventricle and a portion of the papillary muscle. The infarction is noted at the apex of the heart and the interventricular septum, therefore, the obstruction has occurred in the left anterior descending artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      34.4
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed. This was...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed. This was the second time he has collapsed during the past 3 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40 due to sudden cardiac death. Echocardiography showed evidence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His 24 hr ECG revealed several short runs of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia (VT). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Implantable cardiovertor defibrillator

      Explanation:

      This patient has a high risk of sudden cardiac death due to a strong family history and non sustained VT. So the most appropriate management is implantable cardiovertor defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      111.5
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A woman with breast cancer develops urinary frequency. Which part of the brain...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with breast cancer develops urinary frequency. Which part of the brain has metastasis potentially spread to?

      Your Answer: Pons

      Correct Answer: Diencephalon

      Explanation:

      Diencephalon consists of four structures; thalamus, subthalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus. The hypothalamus has a crucial role in controlling urinary frequency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      59.7
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for colon cancer. He was put on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin postoperatively as well as prednisolone. Now he complains of central chest pain and his ECG revealed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was given aspirin and oxygen as the initial treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of bleeding due to recent surgery and heparin. So thrombolysis is not an option. The most appropriate management is percutaneous coronary intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      75.5
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic complaining of passing faeces per urethra. Cystoscopy confirms a fistula between his bladder and bowel.

      Which treatment is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer: surgery

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for a colovesicular fistula is surgery. This is the only definitive treatment. If the patient is a poor surgical candidate, there can be an attempt to manage them non-operatively, but this is absolutely NOT the MOST EFFECTIVE therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      54.9
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - From the following options, choose the one which is not a cause of...

    Incorrect

    • From the following options, choose the one which is not a cause of liver cirrhosis.

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis is a cause of portal hypertension and periportal fibrosis – it is, however, not a cause of cirrhosis. The main causes of cirrhosis include: alcohol and hepatitis B, C, and D. Autoimmune causes include: both primary and secondary biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hepatitis. There are a number of inherited conditions which cause cirrhosis, such as hereditary hemochromatosis, Wilson’s disease, Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency, galactosaemia glycogen storage disease, and cystic fibrosis. Additionally, there are also vascular causes, such as hepatic venous congestion, Budd-Chiari syndrome, and veno-occlusive disease. Intestinal bypass surgery has also been implicated as a causative factor for cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.8
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A 41-year-old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been smoking for 25 years and has a past history of regular cannabis use. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell laryngeal cancer

      Explanation:

      Progressive hoarseness of the voice is a very typical and early finding in people suspected to have squamous cell laryngeal cancer. Due to mechanical compression, patients might experience dysphagia as well as pain. The ‘lump in the throat sensation is not uncommon too. Haemoptysis might be present, together with respiratory symptoms such as dyspnoea. Other symptoms consist of constitutional complaints, such as weight loss or fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      53.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal System (0/1) 0%
Hepatobiliary System (1/2) 50%
The Skin (0/1) 0%
Geriatric Medicine (1/1) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (2/3) 67%
Nervous System (2/2) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (2/4) 50%
Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (2/4) 50%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (2/4) 50%
Immune System (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (1/2) 50%
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