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  • Question 1 - In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by...

    Incorrect

    • In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?

      Your Answer: The pulmonary vascular resistance is very high and therefore a majority of blood passes from the right side of the heart through the ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.

      Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.

      Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in...

    Incorrect

    • An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits.

      Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?

      Your Answer: Glucose and urea molecules

      Correct Answer: Sodium and potassium cations

      Explanation:

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.

      2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity

      313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5

      Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.

      The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.

      The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:

      OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity

      Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      129.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: Contains the same concentration of protein as plasma

      Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.

      Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.

      CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.

      The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.

      The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase?

      Your Answer: Isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme which contains zinc and can be found in:
      1. Erythrocytes
      2. Pulmonary endothelium
      3. The intestine
      4. Pancreas
      5. Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.

      To date, there have been seven isoenzymes identified. Of note, isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule and isoenzyme II is found within the luminal cells.

      Acetazolamides a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and is used as prophylaxis against mountain sickness and in glaucoma management.

      Spironolactone is a potassium diuretic and is an aldosterone antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any...

    Correct

    • The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.

      At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?

      Your Answer: Thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.

      The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
      1. Colour ultrasound sonography
      2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.

      This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
      Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
      Hepatoportal 58
      Kidney 420
      Brain 54
      Skin 13
      Skeletal muscle 2.7
      Heart 87
      Carotid body 2000
      Thyroid gland 560

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Useful diagnostic information can be obtained from measuring the osmolality of biological fluids....

    Correct

    • Useful diagnostic information can be obtained from measuring the osmolality of biological fluids.

      Of the following physical principles, which is the most accurate and reliable method of measuring osmolality?

      Your Answer: Depression of freezing point

      Explanation:

      Colligative properties are properties of solutions that depend on the number of dissolved particles in solution. They do not depend on the identities of the solutes.

      All of the above have colligative properties with the exception of depression of melting point.

      The osmolality from the concentration of a substance in a solution is measured by an osmometer. The freezing point of a solution can determines concentration of a solution and this can be measured by using a freezing point osmometer. This is applicable as depression of freezing point is directly correlated to concentration.

      Vapour pressure osmometers, which measure vapour pressure, may miss certain volatiles such as CO2, ammonia and alcohol that are in the solution

      The use of a freezing point osmometer provides the most accurate and reliable results for the majority of applications.

      Colligative properties does not include melting point depression . Mixtures of substances in which the liquid phase components are insoluble, display a melting point depression and a melting range or interval instead of a fixed melting point.

      The magnitude of the melting point depression depends on the mixture composition.

      The melting point depression is used to determine the purity and identity of compounds. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) cream is a mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine and is used as a topical local anaesthetic. The melting point of the combined drugs is lower than that individually and is below room temperature (18°C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Correct

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2)...

    Incorrect

    • In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.

      What is the most significant reason for this?

      Your Answer: The basal lung units are better perfused than apical units

      Correct Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units

      Explanation:

      In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).

      The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.

      In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.

      PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.

      PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.

      The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?

      Your Answer: Cl-

      Correct Answer: Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The solutions that contains the most sodium is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The solutions that contains the most sodium is?

      Your Answer: 6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose

      Correct Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Sodium concentration for different fluids
      3% N saline 513 mmol/L
      5% N saline 856 mmol/L
      0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
      Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
      0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/L

      This means that:

      500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
      1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
      3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
      4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
      6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

    The...

    Correct

    • Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

      The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?

      Your Answer: CYP2D6

      Explanation:

      Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

      As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

      The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

      Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

      All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors?

      Your Answer: The A1 and A2 receptors are present centrally and peripherally

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Adenosine receptors are expressed on the surface of most cells.
      Four subtypes are known to exist which are A1, A2A, A2B and A3.

      Of these, the A1 and A2 receptors are present peripherally and centrally. There are agonists at the A1 receptors which are antinociceptive, which reduce the sensitivity to a painful stimuli for the individual. There are also agonists at the A2 receptors which are algogenic and activation of these results in pain.

      The role of adenosine and other A1 receptor agonists is currently under investigation for use in acute and chronic pain states.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent...

    Incorrect

    • An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.

      Which of the following best describes its make-up?

      Your Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 30 mequivalents and glucose 40 g

      Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g

      Explanation:

      30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.

      As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.

      Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation?

      Your Answer: Emergency caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Emergency surgery for major trauma

      Explanation:

      Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.

      The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.

      The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Is used in poisoning or overdoses with alkaline drugs

      Correct Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose

      Explanation:

      In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.

      With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.

      By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.

      The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.

      The fluid regimen recommended is:
      500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
      500ml of 5% dextrose and
      500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.

      The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).

      The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy...

    Incorrect

    • Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.

      The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop

      Explanation:

      A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work

      In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.

      The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is? ...

    Incorrect

    • A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide will reduce hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).

      These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.

      Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.

      HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).

      In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.

      HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools....

    Incorrect

    • A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal.

      If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium

      Explanation:

      The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:

      Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
      Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/day

      His energy requirement per day is:

      35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day

      One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.

      The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:

      Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
      0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
      0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
      0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
      Hartmann’s 131 5
      5% dextrose 0 0

      1000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose

      Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).

      Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.

      Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.

      Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)

      Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (5/15) 33%
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