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  • Question 1 - What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin?

      Your Answer: Directly inhibits thrombin

      Correct Answer: Inhibits factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by enhancing the inhibition rate of clotting proteases by antithrombin III impairing normal haemostasis and inhibition of factor Xa. Low molecular weight heparins have a small effect on the activated partial thromboplastin time and strongly inhibit factor Xa. Enoxaparin is derived from porcine heparin that undergoes benzylation followed by alkaline depolymerization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The primary mechanism of action of ketamine is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary mechanism of action of ketamine is:

      Your Answer: N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)-receptor agonist

      Correct Answer: N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a non-competitive antagonist of the calcium-ion channel in the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor. It further inhibits the NMDA-receptor by binding to its phencyclidine binding site. Ketamine also acts at other receptors as an opioid receptor agonist (analgesic effects), as an muscarinic anticholinergic receptor antagonist (antimuscarinic effects) and by blocking fast sodium channels (local anaesthetic effect).

      Overdose may lead to panic attacks and aggressive behaviour; rarely seizures, increased ICP, and cardiac arrest

      Very similar in chemical makeup to PCP (phencyclidine), but it is shorter acting and less toxic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are...

    Incorrect

    • The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the vagus nerve (from the pharyngeal plexus), except for the tensor veli palatini, which is innervated by a branch of the mandibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially...

    Incorrect

    • The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially to the:

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Above the pectinate line, the anal canal drains to the internal iliac lymph nodes which subsequently drain to the lumbar (para-aortic) nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following comprises a negative feedback mechanism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following comprises a negative feedback mechanism?

      Your Answer: Detectors, comparators, a fixed set point and effectors

      Correct Answer: Detectors, comparators, a variable set point and effectors

      Explanation:

      Negative feedback loops, also known as inhibitory loops, play a crucial role in controlling human health. It is a self-regulating mechanism of some sort.

      A negative feedback system is made up of three main components: a detector (often neural receptor cells) that measures the variable in question and provides input to the comparator; a comparator (usually a neural assembly in the central nervous system) that receives input from the detector, compares the variable to the variable set point, and determines whether or not a response is required.

      The comparator activates an effector (typically muscular or glandular tissue) to conduct the appropriate reaction to return the variable to its set point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - From which of the following cell types are platelets derived? ...

    Correct

    • From which of the following cell types are platelets derived?

      Your Answer: Megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of platelets occurs in the bone marrow by fragmentation of megakaryocytes cytoplasm, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The average time for differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets is about 10 days. The major regulator of platelet formation is thrombopoietin and 95% of this is produced by the liver. Normal platelet count is 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal lifespan of a platelet is about 10 days. Usually about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old patient who has been in a car accident needs to be...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient who has been in a car accident needs to be intubated using a rapid sequence induction. As an induction agent, you intend to use etomidate.

      Etomidate works by interacting with which type of receptor?

      Your Answer: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is a carboxylated imidazole derivative with a short half-life that is primarily used to induce anaesthesia.

      It is thought to modulate fast inhibitory synaptic transmission in the central nervous system by acting on GABA type A receptors.
      The dose for anaesthesia induction is 0.3 mg/kg. Etomidate takes 10-65 seconds to take effect after an intravenous injection, and it lasts 6-8 minutes. With repeated administration, the effects are non-cumulative.

      The relative cardiovascular stability of etomidate is noteworthy. During induction, it causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol. It’s also linked to a quick recovery without the hangover.

      Etomidate is a strong steroidogenesis inhibitor. The drug inhibits the enzymes responsible for adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and cholesterol cleavage, resulting in a decrease in cortisol and aldosterone synthesis for up to 24 hours after administration. It should not be used to maintain anaesthesia because of the adrenocortical suppression.

      Other side effects associated with etomidate use include:
      Vomiting and nausea
      The injection causes pain (in up to 50 percent )
      Phlebitis and thrombosis of the veins
      Heart block and arrhythmias
      Hyperventilation
      Apnoea and respiratory depression
      It has the potential to cause both hypo- and hypertension.
      Critically ill patients have a higher mortality rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Airway resistance is predominantly determined by the radius of the airway as described by Poiseuille's law.

      Explanation:

      Flow through airways is described by Darcy’s law which states that flow is directly proportional to the mouth-alveolar pressure gradient and inversely proportional to airway resistance. Airway resistance is primarily determined by the airway radius according to Poiseuille’s law, and whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. Parasympathetic stimulation causes bronchoconstriction and sympathetic stimulation causes bronchodilation, but mediated by beta2-adrenoceptors. Muscarinic antagonists e.g. ipratropium bromide cause bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents with marked breathlessness. He has with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with marked breathlessness. He has with a history of ischaemic heart disease. On examination, there is coarse bibasal crackles, marked peripheral oedema and chest X-ray taken is consistent with severe pulmonary oedema. RR is 28 per minute.

      Which receptor is responsible for detecting pulmonary oedema and the subsequent increase in respiratory rate?

      Your Answer: Aortic baroreceptors

      Correct Answer: Juxtacapillary receptors

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary oedema causes stimulation of the Juxtacapillary receptors (J receptors) leading to a reflex increase in breathing rate. These receptors are also thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea. The J receptors are sensory cells and are located within the alveolar walls in juxtaposition to the pulmonary capillaries.

      Aortic baroreceptor are involved in detecting blood pressure

      Central chemoreceptors detect changes in CO2 and hydrogen ion within the brain

      Atrial volume receptors regulate plasma volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In adult basic life support, chest compressions should be performed at which of...

    Correct

    • In adult basic life support, chest compressions should be performed at which of the following rates:

      Your Answer: 100 - 120 per minute

      Explanation:

      Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 100 – 120 per minute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Anaesthesia (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed