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  • Question 1 - With regards to splenic micro-architecture which is not contained within the red pulp...

    Correct

    • With regards to splenic micro-architecture which is not contained within the red pulp

      Your Answer: Malpighian corpuscles

      Explanation:

      Red pulp is responsible for mechanical filtration of red blood cells and is composed of sinusoids, which are filled with blood, splenic cords of reticular fibers and a marginal zone bordering on white pulp. White pulp provides an active immune response through humoral and cell-mediated pathways. Composed of nodules, called Malpighian corpuscles. These are composed of: lymphoid follicles, rich in B-lymphocytes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS), rich in T-lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      21
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following isoforms of Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is found in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following isoforms of Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is found in endothelial cells?

      Your Answer: Nos 1

      Correct Answer: Nos 3

      Explanation:

      There are only 3 isoforms:NOS 1: found in nervous systemNOS 2: in macrophages and other immune cellsNOS 3: In endothelial cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      111
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)

      Correct Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      36.9
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer: Vaporisation of sweat

      Correct Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      397.2
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - In adults, the major site of haematopoiesis is? ...

    Incorrect

    • In adults, the major site of haematopoiesis is?

      Your Answer: The proximal ends of long bones

      Correct Answer: The axial skeleton

      Explanation:

      Bone marrow is the flexible tissue in the interior of bones. In humans, red blood cells are produced by cores of bone marrow in the heads of long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      155.7
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Cell mediating innate immunity include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cell mediating innate immunity include:

      Your Answer: Chemokines

      Correct Answer: Natural killer cells

      Explanation:

      Antigen receptors recognize the shape of the antigen. They identify specific epitopes and are found on T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      210.1
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: Mitosis

      Correct Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      90.1
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:

      Your Answer: Stimulation of the pilo-erector apparatus to conserve heat in the facial region

      Correct Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior earGeneral visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid musclesSpecial visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      38.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen...

    Incorrect

    • Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen is by

      Your Answer: Carboxypeptidase a

      Correct Answer: Trypsin

      Explanation:

      The enzyme trypsin exists in pancreatic juice in the inactive form trypsinogen, it is activated by the intestinal enterokinase in intestinal juice. Trypsin can then activate other protease enzymes and catalyse the reaction pro-colipase → colipase. Colipase is necessary, along with bile salts, to enable lipase function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      179.6
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s): ...

    Incorrect

    • Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s):

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Endothelial cells produce thromboxane, prostacyclins, nitric oxides, endothelins, IL-1 and TNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      262.7
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer: Ventricles are relaxed

      Correct Answer: Coincide with atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      A third heart sound also called a ventricular gallop occurs at the beginning of diastole after S2 and is lower in pitch than S1 or S2 as it is not of valvular origin. The third heart sound is benign in youth, some trained athletes, and sometimes in pregnancy but if it re-emerges later in life it may signal cardiac problems, such as a failing left ventricle as in dilated congestive heart failure (CHF). S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. It may also be a result of tensing of the chordae tendineae during rapid filling and expansion of the ventricle. In other words, an S3 heart sound indicates increased volume of blood within the ventricle. An S3 heart sound is best heard with the bell-side of the stethoscope (used for lower frequency sounds). A left-sided S3 is best heard in the left lateral decubitus position and at the apex of the heart, which is normally located in the 5th left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. A right-sided S3 is best heard at the lower-left sternal border. The way to distinguish between a left and right-sided S3 is to observe whether it increases in intensity with inhalation or exhalation. A right-sided S3 will increase on inhalation, while a left-sided S3 will increase on exhalation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      59.4
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily.Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?

      Your Answer: They stimulate fatty acid synthetase

      Correct Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions. This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      109.1
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Activation of baroreceptor reflex involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of baroreceptor reflex involves:

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Short term regulation of systemic blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Baroreceptors are found in the heart and the blood vessels. They are the carotid sinus and the aortic arch receptors and respond to the minute to minute change in the blood pressure i.e. a change in the pulsatile pressure and not to a change in the mean arterial pressure. If the pulse pressure decreases, the rate of firing of the receptors decreases, stimulating an increase in the heart rate and blood pressure. Mechanisms that regulate the long term blood pressure control include the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      112.5
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor...

    Correct

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor cortex and planning and programming movements?

      Your Answer: Cerebrocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebrocerebellum is the largest functional subdivision of the cerebellum, comprising of the lateral hemispheres and the dentate nuclei. It is involved in the planning and timing of movements, and in the cognitive functions of the cerebellum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      106.5
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Where is the melanocortin system located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the melanocortin system located?

      Your Answer: Cerebral cortex

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The melanocortin system is a group of hormones which include hormones from the pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)-expressing neurons, the neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP)-co-expressing neurons. This system is located in the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus; it also includes the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus and the melanocortin 4 receptor (MC4R)-expressing neurons located in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus. The system regulates energy expenditure and food intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      22.8
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - The average end diastolic volume in a healthy individual’s ventricle is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The average end diastolic volume in a healthy individual’s ventricle is?

      Your Answer: 50 ml

      Correct Answer: 130 ml

      Explanation:

      The end diastolic volume in a healthy individual is about 130 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      36.4
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called: ...

    Incorrect

    • The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:

      Your Answer: Southern blotting

      Correct Answer: PCR

      Explanation:

      PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      74.5
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function? ...

    Correct

    • Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function?

      Your Answer: Promotion of inflammation

      Explanation:

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that has a wide variety of functions. It can cause cytolysis of certain tumour cell lines; it is involved in the induction of cachexia; it is a potent pyrogen, causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion; it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation under certain conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      159.8
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Coronary blood flow occurs in? ...

    Incorrect

    • Coronary blood flow occurs in?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      Coronary arteries are unique in that they fill during diastole, when not occluded by valve cusps nor compressed by myocardial contraction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      98.4
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated?

      Your Answer: Nucleus

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is a programmed form of cell death involving the degradation of cellular constituents by a group of cysteine proteases called caspases. The caspases can be activated through either the intrinsic (mitochondrial mediated) or extrinsic (death receptor mediated) apoptotic pathways.

      The intrinsic apoptotic pathway, also known as the mitochondrial pathway, is primarily initiated within the mitochondria. This pathway is activated in response to various internal stimuli, such as DNA damage, oxidative stress, and other cellular stresses.

      When the intrinsic pathway is triggered, several events occur in the mitochondria:

      1. Release of cytochrome c: Cytochrome c is released from the mitochondrial intermembrane space into the cytoplasm.
      2. Formation of the apoptosome: Cytochrome c in the cytoplasm binds to apoptotic protease activating factor-1 (Apaf-1) and procaspase-9, forming a complex known as the apoptosome.
      3. Activation of caspase-9: The apoptosome activates caspase-9, an initiator caspase.
      4. Caspase cascade: Activated caspase-9 then activates executioner caspases, such as caspase-3, leading to the execution phase of apoptosis, which results in the orderly dismantling of the cell.

      The mitochondria play a crucial role in this pathway by regulating the release of pro-apoptotic factors that are essential for the activation of downstream apoptotic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      38.4
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer: Factor XIa

      Correct Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH): It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot. LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation. Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.Dosage and uses:LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.Less commonly it can cause:Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)Osteoporosis and spontaneous fracturesHypoaldosteronismHypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      83.8
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and...

    Correct

    • Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and stability?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      101.1
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      78.4
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to: ...

    Correct

    • The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to:

      Your Answer: Increase in intracellular Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility Is not due to ventricular filling. It occurs in isolated locations in the heart and is due to increase availability of intracellular calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      280.6
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?...

    Correct

    • The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?

      Your Answer: Action potential

      Explanation:

      This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      60.4
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit Protein synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibit Folic Acid metabolism

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      41.9
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?...

    Correct

    • The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 5 to 8

      Explanation:

      The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      29.2
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Dietary starch is mainly: ...

    Incorrect

    • Dietary starch is mainly:

      Your Answer: Lactose

      Correct Answer: Amylopectin

      Explanation:

      Dietary starch consists of two types of molecules: the linear and helical amylose and the branched amylopectin. Starch generally contains 20 to 25% amylose and 75 to 80% amylopectin by weight but depends in the plant. Glycogen, the glucose store of animals, is a more branched version of amylopectin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      92.3
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer: Basket

      Correct Answer: A delta and C pain fibers

      Explanation:

      A delta and C fibers use glutamate as their primary neurotransmitter where it acts as a fast acting localized neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      27
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts act in the distal convoluted tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (1/2) 50%
Medicine (23/29) 79%
Connective Tissue (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Immunology (2/2) 100%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (5/7) 71%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
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