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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except:

      Your Answer: The ovaries are usually well developed

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have malfunctioning or streak ovaries due to which they can never conceive. It affects females, who will have a short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck and karyotyping shows 45XO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At birth, approximately how many oocytes are present in the ovaries? ...

    Incorrect

    • At birth, approximately how many oocytes are present in the ovaries?

      Your Answer: 1,000

      Correct Answer: 1 million

      Explanation:

      Female infants are thought to be born with the total number of gametes they will posses in their lifetime. About 1 million healthy oocytes are present at birth. However, only about 300,000 of these oocytes survive to puberty, a number which continues to decline until all the oocytes are depleted triggering menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by: ...

    Correct

    • In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by:

      Your Answer: Atresia

      Explanation:

      During the ovulatory cycle, only one follicle will ovulate. The remaining non-ovulating follicles undergo disintegration. This process is known as atresia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Correct

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: The characteristic features include normal uterus and breast development, and ambiguous genitalia

      Correct Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon? ...

    Correct

    • What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon?

      Your Answer: T12/L1

      Explanation:

      Sigmoid colon is part of the hindgut and the hindgut is innervated by the T12-L1 segment of the spinal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAIS)

      Correct Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

      Explanation:

      Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Ductus Arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed: ...

    Correct

    • The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed:

      Your Answer: After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte

      Explanation:

      Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (6/10) 60%
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