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  • Question 1 - A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?

      Your Answer: Hepatic

      Correct Answer: Left gastroepiploic

      Explanation:

      Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It has extraglomerular mesangial...

    Incorrect

    • In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It has extraglomerular mesangial cells that:

      Your Answer: Provide structural support for and regulate blood flow of the glomerular capillaries by their contractile activity

      Correct Answer: Form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with the macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

      Explanation:

      The mesangium is an inner layer of the glomerulus, within the basement membrane surrounding the glomerular capillaries. The mesangial cells are phagocytic and secrete the amorphous basement membrane-like material known as the mesangial matrix. They are typically separated from the lumen of the capillaries by endothelial cells. The other type of cells in the mesangium are the extraglomerular mesangial cells which form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with two other types of cells: the macula densa of the distal convoluted tubule and juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole. This apparatus controls blood pressure through the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?

      Your Answer: Recycling of old red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells found in the liver are part of the monocyte-reticular system. They are specialised macrophages and primarily function to recycle old and damaged RBCs. The RBCs are phagocytosed and the haemoglobin is broken down into haem and globin. The haem is further broken down into iron that is recycled and bilirubin that is conjugated with glucuronic acid and excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Poor hair cell function in cochlea

      Correct Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28 year gang member was shot in the chest. The bullet hit...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year gang member was shot in the chest. The bullet hit a vessel that courses horizontally across the mediastinum. Which of the following vessels is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left subclavian vein

      Correct Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The superior vena cava that empties blood into the right atrium is formed by the right and the left brachiocephalic veins. Hence, the left brachiocephalic has to course across the mediastinum horizontally to join with its right ‘counterpart’. The left subclavian artery and vein being lateral to the mediastinum do not cross the mediastinum while the left jugular and the common carotid artery course vertically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with...

    Incorrect

    • A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with karyorrhexis and fragmentation. The overall integrity of the tissue structure is preserved. This is typical of which of the following pathologies?

      Your Answer: Brown atrophy of the heart

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Viral infections will cause necrosis of the hepatocytes with characteristic changes of karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation.

      Brown atrophy of the heart is due to accumulation of lipofuscin in the myocardium.

      Tissue destruction associated with transplant rejection leads to widespread loss of structural integrity.

      Single cell necrosis is not characteristically seen in chronic alcoholic liver.

      Barbiturate overdose will result in hypertrophy of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

      Carcinoma insitu will cause dysplastic cells without the overall structural integrity being disrupted.

      Atrophy is due to apoptosis with ordered cellular fragmentation and phagocytosis and will not induce an inflammatory process unlike necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said...

    Correct

    • A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.

      Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.

      Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed to massive amounts of carbon tetrachloride on her skin as well as inhaled. Which of the following organs is most susceptible to damage?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is a common agent used in the dry cleaning industry and is thought to cause the formation of free radicals. It causes rapid breakdown of the endoplasmic reticulum due to decomposition of lipids and severe liver cell injury. Within less than 30 mins, hepatic protein synthesis declines, lipid export is reduced due to lack of apoprotein and there is an influx of calcium and cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year old lady presented to the clinic with chronic pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old lady presented to the clinic with chronic pain in the abdomen. On physical examination, she was found to be pale. Further investigations revealed a decrease in both serum iron and total iron-binding capacity, along with an increase in serum ferritin. These findings are seen in:

      Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is characterized by low serum iron, iron-binding capacity and saturation with increased ferritin (storage iron). Haemolytic anaemia is characterized by normal iron levels as the haemoglobin released from the haemolysed red blood cells is recycled. Anaemia due to chronic blood loss leads to low serum iron, low ferritin and high total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Malabsorption, especially with duodenal involvement can also lead to iron deficiency anaemia with low ferritin and high TIBC. Megaloblastic anaemia due to vitamin B12 and folate deficiency is not associated with abnormalities in metabolism of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes which is worst in the morning. Laboratory studies showed:

      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 30 mg/dl

      Creatinine = 2. 8 mg/dl

      Albumin = 2. 0 mg/dl

      Alanine transaminase (ALT) = 25 U/l

      Bilirubin = 1 mg/dl

      Urine analysis shows 3+ albumin and no cells.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder in which the glomeruli have been damaged, characterized by:

      – Proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 body surface area per day, or > 40 mg per square meter body surface area per hour in children)

      – Hypoalbuminemia (< 2,5 g/dl) – Hyperlipidaemia, and oedema (generalized anasarca).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - If a 70-year-old man with known atrial fibrillation dies suddenly, which of these...

    Correct

    • If a 70-year-old man with known atrial fibrillation dies suddenly, which of these is the most likely cause of death?

      Your Answer: Thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      In atrial fibrillation, the abnormal atrial contraction can cause blood to stagnate in the left atrium and form a thrombus, which may then embolize. The patient’s history of AF suggest an embolic disease, which lead to his death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:

      Your Answer: Peyer’s patches are more prominent in the proximal jejunum than the distal ileum

      Correct Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum

      Explanation:

      The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure,...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure, received an antibiotic injection. She immediately developed a rash and her airway constricted raising the airway pressure. Which mechanism is responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate reaction that occurs due to binding of the antigen with antibodies attached to mast cells in a previously sensitized person. It has an immediate phase, which is characterised by vasodilation, leakage of plasma, smooth muscle spasm, or glandular secretions. This manifests in about 5-30 min and usually resolves within 60 mins. The delayed phase follows after 24 hours and can persist up to several days. It is due to infiltration of eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils and CD4+ cells and leads to tissue destruction. The nature of the reaction varies according to the site. It can take the form of skin allergy, hives, allergic rhinitis, conjunctivitis, bronchial asthma or food allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?

      Your Answer: Tensor veli palatini

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate and by doing so, assists the levator veli palatini in elevating the palate to occlude and prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level of the nape of the neck will most likely affect:

      Your Answer: Vibratory sensations from the ipsilateral arm

      Explanation:

      At the level mentioned in the question, the lateral portion of dorsal columns comprises of the fasciculus cuneatus. Axons carrying the sensations of touch, vibration and proprioception from the ipsilateral arm enter the spinal cord and ascend in the fasciculus cuneatus, synapsing in the nucleus cuneatus of the caudal medulla. Secondary neurons from this nucleus give rise to internal arcuate fibres, which decussate and ascend to the thalamus as the medial lemniscus. Tertiary neurons from there project to the ipsilateral somatosensory cortex. Thus, any damage to the fasciculus cuneatus will result in a deficit in tactile, proprioceptive and vibratory sensations in the ipsilateral arm, and not the contralateral arm.

      Fine motor control of the fingers is mainly carried by the ipsilateral lateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Motor control of the contralateral foot is carried by the ipsilateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Lack of sweating of the face could be produced by interruption of sympathetic innervation. Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg is carried by the fasciculus gracilis in the medial part of the dorsal columns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      64.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Endometrial hyperplasia is most likely to be associated with which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial hyperplasia is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Choriocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Fibrothecoma

      Explanation:

      A benign tumour arising from the ovarian stroma, fibrothecoma are bilateral in 10% cases. The thecoma component of the tumour can produce oestrogen leading to endometrial hyperplasia. The thecoma is rich in lipid content and is responsible for the yellowish appearance of the tumour. Meig’s syndrome is the presence of fibrothecoma with a right-sided hydrothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A cancer patient was found to have a radio resistant tumour. Which tumour...

    Correct

    • A cancer patient was found to have a radio resistant tumour. Which tumour does the patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Liposarcoma

      Explanation:

      Liposarcoma is a cancer that arises in fat cells in deep soft tissue. Commonly it occurs inside the thigh or retroperitoneum. It usually affects middle-aged and older adults, over 40 years. Liposarcoma is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma. It is very radio resistant. Five-year survival rates vary from 100% to 56% based on histological subtype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The ability of the bacteria to cause disease or its virulence is related...

    Correct

    • The ability of the bacteria to cause disease or its virulence is related to :

      Your Answer: Toxin and enzyme production

      Explanation:

      The pathogenicity of an organism or its ability to cause disease is determined by its virulence factors. Many bacteria produce virulence factors that inhibit the host’s immune system. The virulence factors of bacteria are typically proteins or other molecules that are synthesized by enzymes. These proteins are coded for by genes in chromosomal DNA, bacteriophage DNA or plasmids. The proteins made by the bacteria can poison the host cells and cause tissue damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other drugs. What is the mechanism of action of tazobactam?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase

      Explanation:

      Tazobactam is a compound which inhibits the action of bacterial beta-lactamases. It is added to the extended-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic piperacillin to broaden the spectrum of piperacillin by making it effective against organisms that express beta-lactamase and would normally degrade piperacillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Pathology (7/9) 78%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed