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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following would be the most suitable protection against osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Prevention of osteoporosis associated with chronic glucocorticoid therapy is done by administrating bisphosphonates. Oral bisphosphonates are indicated for patients aged above 65 who have been on steroid therapy for over 3 months, so as to reduce the risk of steroid induced osteoporosis. HRT is usually done in post menopausal women who have oestrogen related bone resorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following has the shortest duration:
Your Answer: Atrial systole
Explanation:Atrial systole: 0.1s
Atrial diastole: around 0.4s
Ventricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s
Ventricular systole: 0.27s
PR interval: 0.12-0.2 s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following proteins are NOT synthesized in the liver?
Your Answer: Steroid
Explanation:Human steroidogenesis occurs in a number of locations:- Corticosteroids are produced in the adrenal cortex.- Oestrogen and progesterone are made primarily in the ovary and the placenta during pregnancy, and testosterone in the testes.- Testosterone is also converted to oestrogen to regulate the supply of each in females and males.- Some neurons and glia in the central nervous system (CNS) express the enzymes required for the local synthesis of pregnant neurosteroids, de novo or from peripheral sources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The hepatic portal vein:
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Carries mainly nutrients from the GIT.
Explanation:The portal vein contains oxygen as any other vein in the body does. The hepatic veins are responsible for venous drainage of the liver. The main function of the portal vein is to carry absorbed nutrients in the gut for metabolism and detoxification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The most resistant area in the brain to hypoxia is:
Your Answer: Cerebral cortex
Correct Answer: Brain stem
Explanation:The structures in the brainstem are more resistant to hypoxia than the cerebral cortex and the rest of the brain structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?
Your Answer: Starling method
Correct Answer: Indicator dilution method
Explanation:There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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The following are examples of the functions of the vascular endothelium except:
Your Answer: Tumour suppression
Explanation:Vascular endothelium has many important functions including regulation of vascular tone, molecular exchange between blood and tissue compartments, hemostasis and signaling for the immune regulation and inflammation. Depending on specific tissue needs and local stresses, endothelial cells are capable of evoking either antithrombotic or prothrombotic events. Tumor suppression is related to genes, or anti-oncogenes, that regulate a cell during cell division and replication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine
Explanation:Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache. His BP is 85/50 mm Hg. He has neck stiffness and photophobia. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT head
Explanation:In elderly patients, symptoms suggestive of meningitis could be due to an intracranial mass lesion (such as abscess, tumour or an intracerebral haematoma). Therefore elderly patients are increased risk of cerebral herniation from an LP. A CT head should be done before an LP to exclude a mass lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An increase in the negative intra-thoracic pressure
Explanation:During inspiration, intrathoracic pressure becomes more negative and intra-abdominal pressure more positive. This increases the venous pressure gradient from abdomen to thorax and promotes filling of the central veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following components regulate cardiac output?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Cardiac output is regulated by the autonomic nervous system with sympathetic nerves having a positive chronotropic and inotropic effect and parasympathetic nerves having the opposite effect. An increase in preload will increase cardiac output likewise an afterload increase will also increase cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration
Explanation:Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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In response to tissue injury, which of these cannot sensitize and activate nociceptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Histamine, serotonin, bradykinin and prostaglandin are all chemical mediators of inflammation with different distinct functions however all activate nociceptors. Calcium on the other hand cannot sensitize or activate nociceptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An important hormone controlling the differentiation of monocytes to osteoclasts, by inhibiting the RANKL/ RANK interaction is called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoprotegerin
Explanation:Osteoprotegerin, also known as osteoclastogenesis inhibitory factor (OCIF) is a glycoprotein that acts as a cytokine receptor. It works as a decoy receptor for the receptor activator of nuclear factor-kappaB ligand (RANKL)/osteoclast differentiation factor, thus inhibiting the differentiation of osteoclasts, which are capable of resorbing bone. Osteoprotegerin has been proposed as a therapeutic agent for osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C fibers
Explanation:According to Erlanger- Grasser classification preganglionic fibers are B fibers whereas post ganglionic fibers are C fibers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Increase Gamma motor neuron activity produces what effect on the muscle spindle sensitivity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase
Explanation:The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is via gamma motor neurons. These neurons also play a role in adjusting the sensitivity of muscle spindles. Increased neuron activity increases the muscle spindle sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The following contributes to the rate of depolarization?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:Depolarization occurs due to impulses generated by the SA node. As the heart beats to the rhythm of the SA node, certain factors will effect the rate of depolarization. All the mentioned options effect the rate of depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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All of the following are Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor XI
Explanation:Activated Vitamin K is used to gamma carboxylate (and thus activate) certain enzymes involved in coagulation: Factors II, VII, IX, X, and protein C and protein S. Inability to activate the clotting cascade via these factors leads to the bleeding symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted him and advised of the Barthel score index. During rehabilitation, which one of the following limitations are best described by Barthel score index?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Floor and ceiling effects
Explanation:Barthel scoring has floor and ceiling effects which is the most widely recognised limitation. Floor effect means that the patient who is bed bound can score initially low, whereas the ceiling effect shows that despite being bed bound, a patient can achieve a maximum score i.e. 100. The test is easy to perform and correlates well with other prognostic scales.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin
Explanation:In the excitation contraction coupling model, an action potential is transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors. These are voltage gates calcium channels. Calcium binds to calmodulin during contraction of the smooth muscle and not the cardiac muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is NOT X-linked recessive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a autosomal recessive disease with an incidence of about 1 in 2500 live births. The most common mutation occurs in the long arm of chromosome 7 which codes for the chloride channel (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) gene.
To have CF, a child must inherit two abnormal genes—one from each parent. The recessive CF gene can occur in both boys and girls because it is located on non-sex-linked chromosomes called autosomal chromosomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:The following is a list of factors associated with an increased tendency toward torsades de pointes:- Hypokalaemia (low blood potassium)- Hypomagnesemia (low blood magnesium)- Hypocalcaemia (low blood calcium)- Bradycardia (slow heartbeat)- Heart failure- Left ventricular hypertrophy- Hypothermia- Subarachnoid haemorrhage- Hypothyroidism
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin
Explanation:β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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In Argyll Robertson pupils…
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Telomere
Explanation:Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options are true
Explanation:All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Labial gland biopsy
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: More than half of the population is infected.
Explanation:HSV-1 is often acquired orally during childhood. It may also be sexually transmitted, including contact with saliva, such as kissing and mouth-to-genital contact (oral sex). HSV-2 is primarily a sexually transmitted infection, but rates of HSV-1 genital infections are increasing. HSVs may persist in a quiescent but persistent form known as latent infection, notably in neural ganglia. HSV-1 tends to reside in the trigeminal ganglia, while HSV-2 tends to reside in the sacral ganglia, but these are tendencies only, not fixed behaviour. The virus can be reactivated by illnesses such as colds and influenza, eczema, emotional and physical stress, gastric upset, fatigue or injury, by menstruation and possibly exposure to bright sunlight. Genital Herpes may be reactivated by friction. Shingles is due to a reactivation of varicella zoster virus (VZV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
