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  • Question 1 - What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby? ...

    Incorrect

    • What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia....

    Correct

    • A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.

      The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.

      The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      197
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction,...

    Incorrect

    • Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, and arterial thromboembolism; however, it is not recommended to use it again after 4 days from the first administration. Which complication could arise from repeated use?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase belongs to a group of medications known as ‘fibrinolytics’ and is an extracellular metallo-enzyme produced by beta-haemolytic streptococci, used as an effective clot-dissolving medication in patients with myocardial infarction and pulmonary embolism. As Streptokinase is a bacterial product, the body has the ability to build up an immunity to it. Therefore, it is recommended that this medication should not be used again after four days from the first administration, as it may not be as effective and may also cause an allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and...

    Incorrect

    • Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and sometimes extending to the soft tissues?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Correct Answer: Benign giant-cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Benign giant-cell tumours tend to affect adults in their twenties and thirties, occur in the epiphyses and can erode the bone and extend into the soft tissues. These tumours have a strong tendency to recur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the opening of the atrioventricular (AV)...

    Correct

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the opening of the atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: Beginning of diastole

      Explanation:

      Cardiac diastole refers to the time period when the heart is relaxed after contraction and is preparing to refill with blood. Both ventricular and atrial diastole are together known as complete cardiac diastole. At its beginning, the ventricles relax, causing a drop in the ventricular pressure. As soon as the left ventricular pressure drops below that in left atrium, the mitral valve opens and there is ventricular filling of blood. Similarly, the tricuspid valve opens filling the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54 year old man fell off his bicycle. He felt a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man fell off his bicycle. He felt a severe pain in his hand and wasn't able to move it. It was found that a carpal bone in the distal row was fractured. Which is the most likely bone?

      Your Answer: Lunate

      Correct Answer: Trapezium

      Explanation:

      There are eight carpal bones which are arranged in two rows, proximal and distal; scaphoid, lunate, triquetral and pisiform are of proximal row. Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and hamate are of the distal row.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of...

    Correct

    • The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of a round lesion containing an air-fluid level in the left lung. These findings are most probably suggestive of:

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      Lung abscesses are collections of pus within the lung that arise most commonly as a complication of aspiration pneumonia caused by oral anaerobes. Older patients are more at risk due to poor oral hygiene, gingivitis an inability to handle their oral secretions due to other diseases. Chest X-ray most commonly reveals the appearance of an irregularly shaped cavity with an air-fluid level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Axillary

      Correct Answer: Lower subscapular

      Explanation:

      The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on...

    Incorrect

    • A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on the skin of her mons pubis. Which nerve supplies the skin of the mons pubis?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Correct Answer: Anterior labial

      Explanation:

      Anterior labial branch is the terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve that innervates the skin of the mons pubis in women and the skin of the anterior scrotum in men.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve innervates the upper medial thigh.

      The iliohypogastric innervates muscles of the abdominal wall.

      The subcostal nerve innervates muscles of the abdominal wall and the skin of the lower abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5999
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops malignant mesothelioma and is scheduled for pleuropneumonectomy to remove the entire pleura and lung on the affected side. Which layer would provide a natural cleavage plane for surgical separation of the costal pleura from the thoracic wall?

      Your Answer: Parietal pleura

      Correct Answer: Endothoracic fascia

      Explanation:

      The endothoracic fascia is connective tissue that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner aspect of the chest wall. Removing this layer of connective tissue would make it easy to separate the costal pleura from the thoracic wall.

      Deep fascia: is not found around the lungs. It is a layer of connective tissue that invests a muscle or a group of muscles.

      Parietal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the inner surface of the chest/thoracic cavity.

      Visceral pleura: is the serous membrane that lines the surface of the lungs.

      Transversus thoracis muscle fascia is associated only with the muscle transversus thoracis.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. It is not associated with the thoracic wall or the costal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Incorrect

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Abdomen

      Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like...

    Correct

    • A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like lesion on the areolar region of her left breast, for 5 months. Biopsy of the lesion showed large cells at the dermal-epidermal junction with positive staining for mucin. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast or nipple resembles eczema in appearance with an underlying carcinoma typically. The disease is usually unilateral and presents with inflammation, oozing and crusting along with a non-healing ulcer. Treatment is often delayed due to the innocuous appearance but can be fatal. It results due to spread of neoplastic cells from the ducts of the mammary gland to the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      785.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:

      Your Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - After being admitted to the hospital, a 60-year-old man is administered sodium nitroprusside....

    Correct

    • After being admitted to the hospital, a 60-year-old man is administered sodium nitroprusside. Which class of drugs does nitroprusside belong to?

      Your Answer: Vasodilators

      Explanation:

      Sodium nitroprusside is a potent peripheral vasodilator that affects both arterioles and venules. It is often administered intravenously to patients who are experiencing a hypertensive emergency. It reduces both total peripheral resistance as well as venous return, so decreasing both preload and afterload. For this reason it can be used in severe cardiogenic heart failure where this combination of effects can act to increase cardiac output. It is administered by intravenous infusion. Onset is typically immediate and effects last for up to ten minutes. The duration of treatment should not exceed 72 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where...

    Incorrect

    • A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where physical examination reveals that he has limited extension of his right humerus. Which of the following nerves is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extension of the humerus is a function of the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve which is a branch of the posterior cord of the plexus whose fibres are derived from cranial nerves V, VI and VII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus

      Explanation:

      The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.

      The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      176.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?

      Your Answer: Caseous necrosis

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
      • Pathology
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate...

    Correct

    • After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The stapedius is the smallest skeletal muscle in the human body. At just over one millimetre in length, its purpose is to stabilize the smallest bone in the body, the stapes and is innervated by a branch of the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Incorrect

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer: The pupil

      Correct Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus?

      Your Answer: Is found in the falx cerebelli

      Correct Answer: Is formed between two layers of meningeal dura

      Explanation:

      The inferior sagittal sinus is also known as the inferior longitudinal sinus. It courses along the inferior border of the falx cerebri, superior to the corpus callosum. It is cylindrical in shape and increases in size as it passes backward ending in the straight sinus. It receives blood from the deep and medial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres and drains into the straight sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The thoracic duct : ...

    Incorrect

    • The thoracic duct :

      Your Answer: Extends from the first sacral vertebra to the root of the neck

      Correct Answer: varies in length from 38 to 45 cm

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is the main drainage of lymph in the body. It varies in length from 38 to 45 cm and extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the root of the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following toxins most likely results in continuous cAMP production, which...

    Correct

    • Which of the following toxins most likely results in continuous cAMP production, which pumps H2O, sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate into the lumen of the small intestine and results in rapid dehydration?

      Your Answer: Cholera toxin

      Explanation:

      The cholera toxin (CTX or CT) is an oligomeric complex made up of six protein subunits: a single copy of the A subunit (part A), and five copies of the B subunit (part B), connected by a disulphide bond. The five B subunits form a five-membered ring that binds to GM1 gangliosides on the surface of the intestinal epithelium cells. The A1 portion of the A subunit is an enzyme that ADP-ribosylates G proteins, while the A2 chain fits into the central pore of the B subunit ring. Upon binding, the complex is taken into the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the disulphide bond is reduced, and the A1 subunit is freed to bind with a human partner protein called ADP-ribosylation factor 6 (Arf6). Binding exposes its active site, allowing it to permanently ribosylate the Gs alpha subunit of the heterotrimeric G protein. This results in constitutive cAMP production, which in turn leads to secretion of H2O, Na+, K+, Cl−, and HCO3− into the lumen of the small intestine and rapid dehydration. The gene encoding the cholera toxin was introduced into V. cholerae by horizontal gene transfer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Injury to this nerve will affect the function of the palatoglossus and levator...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to this nerve will affect the function of the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles:

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve IX

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve X

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) innervates both the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The pterygoid plexus receives tributaries from which of the following veins? ...

    Incorrect

    • The pterygoid plexus receives tributaries from which of the following veins?

      Your Answer: Superficial temporal vein

      Correct Answer: Maxillary vein

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid plexus of veins is the main venous component associated with the infratemporal fossa. It receives tributaries corresponding to the branches of the internal maxillary artery. This plexus communicates freely with the anterior facial vein; it also communicates with the cavernous sinus, by branches through the foramen of Vesalius, foramen ovale and foramen lacerum. The (internal) maxillary vein is a short trunk which accompanies the first part of the (internal) maxillary artery. It is formed by a confluence of the veins of the pterygoid plexus and passes backward between the sphenomandibular ligament and the neck of the mandible and unites with the temporal vein to form the posterior facial vein. It carries blood away from the infratemporal fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In relation to the muscles of facial expression, It is true to say:...

    Incorrect

    • In relation to the muscles of facial expression, It is true to say:

      Your Answer: The mandibular nerve, a branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates some of the facial muscles

      Correct Answer: They are in the same subcutaneous plane as the platysma muscle

      Explanation:

      The facial muscles generally originate from the facial bones and attach to the skin, in the same plane as the platysma muscle. They are all innervated by cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve). The occipitofrontalis muscle consists of two parts: The occipital belly, near the occipital bone, and the frontal belly, near the frontal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following can lead to haemolytic anaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can lead to haemolytic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor deficiency

      Correct Answer: Presence of haemoglobin S

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin S is an abnormal type of haemoglobin seen in sickle cell anaemia. This allows for the haemoglobin to crystalize within the RBC upon exposure to low partial pressures of oxygen. This results in rupture of the RBCs as they pass through microcirculation, especially in the spleen. This can cause blockage of the vessel down stream and ischaemic death of tissues, accompanied by severe pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (7/12) 58%
Abdomen (3/4) 75%
Anatomy (3/15) 20%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Upper Limb (0/3) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Thorax (0/2) 0%
Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Women's Health (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (0/6) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Passmed