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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is diagnosed with bladder cancer. Which is the most likely type?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas derived from the bladder urothelium. Risk factors include industrial chemicals, smoking and infection. Schistosomiasis and bladder stones predispose to the squamous cell variety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure, is likely to eventually present with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      When the parathyroid glands secrete excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to hypocalcaemia, it is known as Secondary hyperparathyroidism and is often seen in patients with renal failure. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys fail to excrete adequate phosphorus and also fail to convert enough vitamin D to its active form. This leads to formation of insoluble calcium phosphate in the body which ultimately causes hypocalcaemia. The glands then undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include bone and joint pains, along with limb deformities. The raised PTH also results in pleiotropic effects on blood, the immune system and nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a history of sore throat for the past 1 day. On examination there was a pharyngeal purulent discharge. Which of the following types of inflammation is seen in this boy?

      Your Answer: Acute inflammation

      Explanation:

      A 1 day history suggests the purulent discharge is due to acute inflammation. Acute inflammation has 3 features:

      1) the affected area is occupied by a purulent discharge composed of proteins, fluids and cells from local blood vessels

      2) the infective agent i.e. bacteria is present in the affected area

      3) the damaged tissue can be liquified and the debris removed from the site.

      If the inflammation lasts over weeks or months, then it is termed as chronic inflammation.

      Granulomatous inflammation is characterised by the presence and formation of granulomas.

      Exudate is not a feature of resolution or a complication of inflammation.

      Abscess formation takes more than 1 day to form and is usually within a capsule/cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?

      Your Answer: Pectinate muscles

      Correct Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)

      Explanation:

      The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true of Colles’ fracture? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true of Colles’ fracture?

      Your Answer: Is a cause of carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Colles’ fracture is a distal fracture of the radius that is a known cause of carpal tunnel syndrome (compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel). It rarely results in ulnar nerve compression. A Colles’ fracture is extra-articular and does not extend into the wrist joint, otherwise this would make it an intra-articular fracture (Barton’s fracture). The distal fragment in a Colles’ fracture is displaced dorsally, unlike in a Smith’s fracture where the distal fragment is displaced volarly (ventrally). Associated fracture of the ulnar styloid process may occur and is a common associated injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from...

    Incorrect

    • Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from folds of the mucous membrane and the submucosa of the anal canal which contain varicose branches of the:

      Your Answer: Middle rectal artery

      Correct Answer: Superior rectal vein

      Explanation:

      Internal haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the superior rectal vein.

      External haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the inferior rectal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Colorectal
      113.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic...

    Incorrect

    • An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Correct Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart.

      Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart.

      Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles.

      Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.

      Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Calculate the stroke volume in a patient admitted for coronary bypass surgery, with...

    Correct

    • Calculate the stroke volume in a patient admitted for coronary bypass surgery, with the following parameters pre-operatively:

      Oxygen consumption = 300 ml/min

      Arterial oxygen content = 20 ml/100 ml blood

      Pulmonary arterial oxygen content = 15 ml/100 ml blood and Heart rate = 100 beats/min.

      Your Answer: 60 ml

      Explanation:

      By Fick’s principle, cardiac output can be calculated as follows: VO2 = CO × (CAO2– CVO2) where VO2= oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = arterial oxygen content and CvO2 = mixed venous oxygen content. Thus, in the given problem, 300 ml/min = CO × (20 – 15) ml/100 ml CO = 300 × 100/5 ml/min CO = 6000 ml/min. Also, cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate. Thus, 6000 ml/min = stroke volume × 100 beats/min. Hence, stroke volume = 6000/100 ml/min which is 60 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What's the nodal stage of a testicular seminoma if several lymph nodes between...

    Incorrect

    • What's the nodal stage of a testicular seminoma if several lymph nodes between 2cm and 5cm are found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: N2

      Explanation:

      According to the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 2002 guidelines, the nodal staging of testicular seminoma is the following:

      N0: no regional lymph node metastases

      N1: metastasis with lymph nodes 2 cm or less in their greatest dimension or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2 cm

      N2: metastasis with lymph nodes greater than 2 cm but not greater than 5 cm in their greatest dimension, or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm, but not more than 5 cm

      N3: metastasis with lymph nodes greater than 5 cm in their greatest dimension.

      The patient in this case has N2 testicular seminoma. This TNM staging is extremely important because treatment options are decided depending on this classification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A tumour on the floor of the fourth ventricle is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A tumour on the floor of the fourth ventricle is most likely to compress which of the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abducent

      Explanation:

      The fourth ventricle, is a cavity of the brains ventricular system in which the cerebrospinal fluid is formed. This cavity is located behind the pons and upper half of the medulla oblongata. It extends from the cerebral aqueduct, to its connection to the third ventricle, and to the obex- which is the caudal tip of the fourth ventricle. The floor of the fourth ventricle consists of three parts – superior, intermediate and inferior. This inferior aspect of the floor of the fourth ventricle has the nucleus of the abducens nerve, CN VI which is looped over by the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/4) 25%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (0/1) 0%
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