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  • Question 1 - The solutions that contains the most sodium is? ...

    Correct

    • The solutions that contains the most sodium is?

      Your Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Sodium concentration for different fluids
      3% N saline 513 mmol/L
      5% N saline 856 mmol/L
      0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
      Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
      0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/L

      This means that:

      500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
      1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
      3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
      4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
      6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.

      CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.

      Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?

      Your Answer: DC shocks should be given on alternate cycles

      Correct Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C

      Explanation:

      The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.

      In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:

      If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
      Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
      There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.

      In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:

      DC shocks are used as usual.
      Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.

      Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.

      Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      115.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case...

    Incorrect

    • One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?

      Your Answer: The FEV1 will return to normal within 6 months

      Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker

      Explanation:

      For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.

      There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.

      Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      54.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer: Gender

      Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia

      Explanation:

      The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.

      Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:

      Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.

      MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.

      MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent...

    Incorrect

    • An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.

      Which of the following best describes its make-up?

      Your Answer: Osmolarity 293 mOsmol/L, sodium 30 mequivalents and glucose 20 g

      Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g

      Explanation:

      30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.

      As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.

      Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      1131
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?

      Your Answer: Type I skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle

      Explanation:

      Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.

      It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:

      Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.

      Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
      Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
      Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.

      Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.

      Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      70.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in...

    Incorrect

    • An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits.

      Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?

      Your Answer: Glucose and urea molecules

      Correct Answer: Sodium and potassium cations

      Explanation:

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.

      2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity

      313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5

      Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.

      The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.

      The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:

      OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity

      Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      231.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.

      If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      810.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily? ...

    Correct

    • Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Secreted T4 and T3 circulate in the bloodstream almost entirely bound to proteins. Normally only about 0.03% of total plasma T4 and 0.3% of total plasma T3 exist in the free state. Free T3 is biologically active and mediates the effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues in addition to exerting negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus. The major binding protein is thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which is synthesized in the liver and binds one molecule of T4 or T3. About 70% of circulating T4 and T3 is bound to TBGl 10% to 15% is bound to another specific thyroid-binding protein called transthyretin (TTR). Albumin binds 15% to 20%, and 3% to lipoproteins. Ordinarily only alterations in TBG concentration significantly affect total plasma T4 and T3 levels.

      Two important biological functions have been ascribed to TBG. First, it maintains a large circulating reservoir of T4 that buffers any acute changes in thyroid gland function. Second, binding of plasma T4 and T3 to proteins prevents loss of these relatively small hormone molecules in urine and thereby helps conserve iodide. TTR transports T4 in CSF and provides thyroid hormones to the CNS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

    Which mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

      Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle pump

      Correct Answer: Local autoregulation

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

      The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

      However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

      Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding bilirubin, which one of the following statement is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bilirubin, which one of the following statement is true?

      Your Answer: Unconjugated bilirubin is water soluble

      Correct Answer: Conjugated bilirubin is stored in the gall bladder

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is the tetrapyrrole and a catabolic product of heme. 70-90% of bilirubin is end product of haemoglobin degradation in the liver.

      Bilirubin circulates in the blood in 2 forms; unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin.

      Unconjugated bilirubin is insoluble in water. It travels through the bloodstream to the liver, where it changes from insoluble into a soluble form (i.e.; unconjugated into conjugated form).

      This conjugated bilirubin travels from the liver into the small intestine and the gut bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen and then into urobilin (not urobilin to urobilinogen). A very small amount passes into the kidneys and is excreted in urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).

    Which...

    Correct

    • The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).

      Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?

      Your Answer: Energy

      Explanation:

      The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
      F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
      F = 1 kg·m/s2

      The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
      J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).

      The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:

      J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
      J/s = kg·m2·s-3

      Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
      Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
      Pa = kg·m-1·s-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion.

      A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute.

      Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?

      Your Answer: 150 mL/minute

      Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.

      CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

      CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

      The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

      Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
      RQ=1

      Fats:
      RQ = 0.7

      Proteins:
      Approximately 0.9 RQ

      Ethyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.

      200/300 = 0.67 RQ

      For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.

      When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day,...

    Incorrect

    • The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.

      Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).

      Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.

      The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting...

    Incorrect

    • A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting of air/oxygen entrainment ratio of 1:1 and a minute volume set at 10 litres/minute.

      Which value best approximates to the FiO2?

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      A nominal volume of 2 litres is contained in a CD cylinder. It has a pressure of 230 bar when full and contains litres 460 L of useable oxygen at STP.

      For every 1000 mL 100% oxygen there will be an entrainment of 1000 mL or air (20% oxygen) in an air/oxygen mix.

      The average concentration is, therefore, 120/2=60% or 0.6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?

      Your Answer: pKA

      Explanation:

      For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

      The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

      Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer...

    Incorrect

    • A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure.

      Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?

      Your Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to the force exerted by the mercury column

      Correct Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable

      Explanation:

      A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.

      Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A). 

      Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
      Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
      Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
      Pressure is proportional to L

      The numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.

      The length is proportional to the applied pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?

      Your Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level

      Explanation:

      The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
      (10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
      This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.

      Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.

      Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.

      Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
      A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.

      So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.

      A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?

      Your Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:

      Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.

      Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.

      Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.

      Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.

      The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:

      8th rib in the midclavicular line

      10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line

      T12 at its termination.

      Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.

      The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started.

      What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?

      Your Answer: 15-19 kg

      Correct Answer: 20-25kg

      Explanation:

      For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:

      Weight = (age + 4) × 2

      The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.

      This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.

      In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.

      However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.

      The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      214.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly ...

    Correct

    • The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

      ATP
      AMP
      Potassium
      Phosphate, and
      Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

      Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      121.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:

      Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
      K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
      Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
      HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
      BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
      Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
      Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)

      Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?

      Your Answer: 295-299

      Correct Answer: 300-313

      Explanation:

      Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.

      Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:

      Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L

      Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.

      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?

      Your Answer: Increases ventilation/perfusion mismatch

      Correct Answer: 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide will reduce hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).

      These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.

      Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.

      HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).

      In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.

      HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:

      Your Answer: It is inversely proportional to the universal gas constant

      Correct Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium

      Explanation:

      The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.

      The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).

      The equation is:
      E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
      /[X]i}

      Where:
      E is the equilibrium potential
      R is the universal gas constant
      T is the absolute temperature
      F is the Faraday constant
      Z is the valency of the ion
      [X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
      [X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway?

      Your Answer: The larynx is more anterior than in an adult

      Explanation:

      In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).

      Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.

      The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.

      Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).

      Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer: It predicts brain damage during cardiopulmonary bypass

      Correct Answer: It decreases during normal sleep

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.

      Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).

      BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.

      BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.

      BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase?

      Your Answer: Has 4 isoenzymes

      Correct Answer: Isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme which contains zinc and can be found in:
      1. Erythrocytes
      2. Pulmonary endothelium
      3. The intestine
      4. Pancreas
      5. Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.

      To date, there have been seven isoenzymes identified. Of note, isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule and isoenzyme II is found within the luminal cells.

      Acetazolamides a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and is used as prophylaxis against mountain sickness and in glaucoma management.

      Spironolactone is a potassium diuretic and is an aldosterone antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      On admission, her GCS was 7. She has been intubated, sedated and is being ventilated and is waiting for a CT scan. Her Blood pressure is 140/70mmHg.

      The arterial blood gas analysis shows the following:

      pH 7.2 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaO2 70 mmHg (80-100)
      9.2 kPa (10.5-13.1)
      PaCO2 78 mmHg (35-45)
      10.2 kPa (4.6-6.0)
      BE -3 mEq/L (-3 +/-3)
      Standard bic 27 mmol/L (21-27)
      SaO2 94%

      The most likely cause of an increase in the patient's global cerebral blood flow (CBF) is which of the following?


      Your Answer: Hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Hypercapnia

      Explanation:

      PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.

      Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.

      An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
      A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Pressure volume loop represents the compliance of left ventricle.

    Considering there...

    Incorrect

    • Pressure volume loop represents the compliance of left ventricle.

      Considering there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, which physiological change may result an increase in left ventricular afterload?

      Your Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Correct Answer: Increased end-systolic volume

      Explanation:

      If there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, there will be decrease in end-diastolic volume and stroke volume. So there must be increase in end-systolic volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: Has an opening pressure of 30 cm of water

      Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.

      Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.

      CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.

      The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.

      The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds

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