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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count =...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 90 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 41 g/dl. Further examination of blood sample revealed increased osmotic fragility of the erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?

      Your Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Spherocytes are small rounded RBCs. It is due to an inherited defect of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins. Membrane blebs form that are lost over time and cells become round instead of biconcave. As it is a normochromic anaemia, the MCV is normal. it is diagnosed by osmotic fragility test which reveals increased fragility in a hypotonic solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which statement is correct regarding coagulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding coagulation?

      Your Answer: Extrinsic pathway activation follows contact of blood with collagen

      Correct Answer: Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

      Explanation:

      Coagulation of blood is a complex process and an important part of haemostasis. There are two main pathways related to coagulation: the contact activation pathway/intrinsic pathway and tissue factor/extrinsic pathway. The extrinsic pathway is activated by external trauma that causes blood to escape from the vascular system. This pathway is quicker than the intrinsic pathway and involves factor VII. The intrinsic pathway is activated by trauma inside the vascular system, and initiated by platelets, exposed endothelium, chemicals, or collagen. This pathway is slower than the extrinsic pathway, but more important. It involves factors XII, XI, IX, VIII. Both pathways meet to finish the formation of a clot in what is known as the common pathway. The common pathway involves factors I, II, V, and X. They converge on the common pathway in which activation of prothrombin to thrombin leads to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and clot formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      91.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Correct Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      Thrombic clotting time is also known as thrombin time. It is clinically performed to determine the therapeutic levels of heparin. After plasma is isolated from the blood, bovine thrombin is added to it and the time it takes from the addition to clot is recorded. The reference interval is usually <21s. deranged results are indicative of heparin therapy, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperfibrinogenaemia or lupus anticoagulant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Is vitamin K independent

      Correct Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the...

    Incorrect

    • After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the peripheral blood will become an activated macrophage in this granuloma?

      Your Answer: Eosinophil

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are leukocytes that protect the body against infections and move to the site of infection within 8-12 hours to deal with it. They are produced in the bone marrow and shortly after being produced are released into the blood stream where they circulate until an infection is detected. When called upon they leave the circulation and transform into macrophages within the tissue fluid and thus gain the capability to phagocytose the offending substance. Monocyte count is part of a complete blood picture. Monocytosis is the state of excess monocytes in the peripheral blood and may be indicative of various disease states. Examples of processes that can increase a monocyte count include: • chronic inflammation • stress response • hyperadrenocorticism • immune-mediated disease • pyogranulomatous disease • necrosis • red cell regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker presented with epistaxis. Which of the following is true regarding blood coagulation?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) results in depletion of fibrin split products

      Correct Answer: Patients with haemophilia A usually have a normal bleeding time

      Explanation:

      A prolonged bleeding time is seen in platelet disorders like thrombocytopenia. Patients with haemophilia A or B have a prolonged PTT but not a prolonged bleeding time.

      Ca2+ is necessary for coagulation.

      von Willebrand factor is an important part of the factor VIII complex and promotes platelet adhesion and aggregation.

      DIC results in depleted coagulation factors and accumulation of fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?

      Your Answer: Deep venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      A D-dimer test is performed to detect and diagnose thrombotic conditions and thrombosis. A negative result would rule out thrombosis and a positive result although not diagnostic, is highly suspicious of thrombotic conditions like a deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism as well as DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following cytokines produced by the T cell induce MHC-II proteins?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cytokines produced by the T cell induce MHC-II proteins?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-1

      Correct Answer: γ-Interferon

      Explanation:

      Interferons elicit a non-specific antiviral activity by inducing specific RNA synthesis and expression of proteins in neighbouring cells. Common interferon inducers are viruses, double-stranded RNA and micro-organisms. INF-γ is produced mainly by CD4+, CD8+ T cells and less commonly by B cells and natural killer cells. INF-γ has antiviral and antiparasitic activity but its main biological activity appears to be immunomodulatory. Among its many functions are activation of macrophages and enhanced expression of MHC-II proteins or macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Atractyloside is an inhibitor of electron transport chain. It is expected to have...

    Incorrect

    • Atractyloside is an inhibitor of electron transport chain. It is expected to have little or no effect on the functioning of which of the following cell types?

      Your Answer: Cardiac muscle cells

      Correct Answer: Red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Electron transport chain is a series of electron carriers that are embedded in the mitochondrial membrane. It is the place where ATP is made. Inhibiting the electron transport chain will stop production of ATP. Red blood cells are the only cell in the given option which do not contain ATP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII:

      Your Answer: Is mainly synthesised by the vascular endothelium

      Correct Answer: Is a serine protease

      Explanation:

      Factor VII (FVII) is a zymogen for a vitamin K-dependent serine protease essential for the initiation of blood coagulation. It is synthesized primarily in the liver and circulates in plasma. Within the liver, hepatocytes are involved in the synthesis of most blood coagulation factors, such as fibrinogen, prothrombin, factor V, VII, IX, X, XI, XII, as well as protein C and S, and antithrombin, whereas liver sinusoidal endothelial cells produce factor VIII and von Willebrand factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and...

    Correct

    • A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and developed subsequent anaemia. Which of the following is a consequence of this?

      Your Answer: A high reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Anaemia refers to a decrease in the circulating levels of haemoglobin in the blood resulting in a reduced ability of the body to transport oxygen effectively. Anaemia from blood loss results in the body further compensating by releasing stored RBCs and immature RBCs from the bone marrow. Thus resulting in a high reticulocyte count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is true regarding factor XI? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding factor XI?

      Your Answer: Is a member of the tissue factor (extrinsic) coagulation pathway

      Correct Answer: Deficiency causes haemophilia C

      Explanation:

      Factor XI is also known as plasma thromboplastin and is one of the enzymes of the coagulation cascade. It is produced in the liver and is a serine protease. It is activated by factor XIIa, thrombin and by itself. Deficiency of factor XI causes the rare type of haemophilia C. Low levels of factor XI also occur in other disease states, including Noonan syndrome. High levels of factor XI have been seen in thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic normochromic anaemia. What is the best treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      E erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that is released by the kidney. It is responsible for the regulation of red blood cell production in the body. It can be made using recombinant technology and is used in the treatment of anaemia of chronic renal failure and in patients under going chemotherapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer: Warfarin therapy

      Correct Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer: Integrin

      Correct Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas, and obstructive jaundice presents with a spontaneous nose bleed and easy bruising. What is the most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin-K-dependent clotting factors deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin requiring fat metabolism to function properly to allow for its absorption. People with obstructive jaundice develop vitamin k deficiency as fat digestion is impaired. Vit K causes carboxylation of glutamate residue and hence regulates blood coagulation including: prothrombin (factor II), factors VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S and protein Z.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A teenage Somalian boy presents with a complaint of an enlarged lower jaw....

    Correct

    • A teenage Somalian boy presents with a complaint of an enlarged lower jaw. His blood film shows blast cells and macrophages. Which virus is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Burkitt’s lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Histologically it is characterised by a starry sky appearance due to numerous neoplastic macrophages which are required to clear the rapidly dividing tumour cells/blast cells. Burkitt’s lymphoma commonly affects the jaw bone, forming a huge tumour mass. It is associated with translocation of c-myc gene and has three types: 1) endemic/African type, 2)sporadic and 3)immunodeficiency-associated. The first type is strongly associated with EBV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of shortness of breath and exertional chest pains over the course of 8 weeks. Examination shows pallor and jugular venous distension. Furthermore, a test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:

      Haemoglobin 7.4 g/dl

      Mean corpuscular volume 70 fl Leukocyte count 5400/mm3

      Platelet count 580 000/mm3 Erythrocyte sedimentation 33 mm/h

      A blood smear shows hypochromic, microcytic RBCs with moderate poikilocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common type of anaemia. It can occur due to deficiency of iron due to decreased intake or due to faulty absorption. An MCV less than 80 will indicated iron deficiency anaemia. On the smear the RBC will be microcytic hypochromic and will also show piokilocytosis. iron profiles tests are important to make a diagnosis. Clinically the patient will be pale and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones...

    Correct

    • Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones and muscles or glands. What happens during the activation of a nerve cell membrane?

      Your Answer: Sodium ions flow inward

      Explanation:

      During the generation of an action potential, the membrane gets depolarized which cause the voltage gated sodium channels to open and sodium diffuses inside the neuron, resulting in the membrane potential moving towards a positive value. This positive potential will then open the voltage gated potassium channels and cause more K+ to move out decreasing the membrane potential and restoring the membrane potential to its resting value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised?

      Your Answer: Hepatocytes

      Correct Answer: Vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is an important part of the coagulation cascade. Deficiency causes haemophilia A. It is synthesised predominantly by the vascular endothelium and is not affected by liver disease. In the circulation it is bound to von Willebrand factor and it forms a stable complex with it. It is activated by thrombin or factor Xa and acts as a co factor to factor IXa to activate factor X which is a co factor to factor Va. Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen in fibrin and forms a meshwork to trap RBC and platelets to form a clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)? ...

    Incorrect

    • what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia

      Correct Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      PT measure the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It determines the measure of the warfarin dose regime, liver disease and vit K deficiency status along with the clotting tendency of blood. PT measured factors are II,V,VII,X and fibrinogen. It is used along with aPTT which measure the intrinsic pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

      Your Answer: Factor VII deficiency

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of...

    Correct

    • A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer: High platelet count

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to a myeloproliferative syndrome, chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/ polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increased RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to...

    Correct

    • After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to use which of the following anticoagulants to store the blood?

      Your Answer: Citrate

      Explanation:

      Calcium is necessary for coagulation to occur. Citrate being a chelator and combining with calcium ions to form un-ionised compound will prevent coagulation. Following transfusion the citrate is removed by the liver with in a few minutes. Oxalate also works on the same principle but it is toxic to the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient admitted for esophagectomy showed low levels of the lightest plasma protein...

    Incorrect

    • A patient admitted for esophagectomy showed low levels of the lightest plasma protein in terms of weight. Which of the following is the lightest plasma protein:

      Your Answer: Gamma-globulin

      Correct Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      Albumin is the most abundant and the lightest of all the plasma proteins. It maintains osmotic pressure, transports unconjugated bilirubin, thyroid hormones, fatty acids, drugs and acts as a buffer for pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?...

    Correct

    • The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?

      Your Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

      Explanation:

      One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      24.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (13/30) 43%
Physiology (13/30) 43%
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