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  • Question 1 - A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

    Which of...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

      Which of the following stimulates release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma phosphate concentration

      Explanation:

      PTH is synthesised and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands located behind the thyroid gland.
      It is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids and it controls free calcium in the body.

      The following stimuli causes release of PTH:
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      PTH release is inhibited by:
      Normal or increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia

      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      648.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following represents ventricular repolarisation on the ECG: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following represents ventricular repolarisation on the ECG:

      Your Answer: ST segment

      Correct Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      132.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Insulin is a very important peptide hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans...

    Correct

    • Insulin is a very important peptide hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
      Insulin is synthesised by which of the following cell types within the islets of Langerhans? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Beta cells

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. Within storage granules, a connecting peptide (C peptide) is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin, but most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. The effects of insulin are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient with a history of worsening chronic breathlessness on exertion undergoes lung...

    Correct

    • A patient with a history of worsening chronic breathlessness on exertion undergoes lung function testing. The results demonstrate an FEV 1 that is 58% predicted and an FEV 1 /FVC ratio less than 0.7.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: COPD

      Explanation:

      Obstructive lung disorders are characterised by airway obstruction. Many obstructive diseases of the lung result from narrowing of the smaller bronchi and larger bronchioles, often because of excessive contraction of the smooth muscle itself.
      In obstructive lung disease, FEV1is reduced to <80% of normal and FVC is usually reduced but to a lesser extent than FEV1. The FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced to <0.7.
      Types of obstructive lung disorders include:
      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
      Asthma
      Bronchiectasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Antispasmodic drugs are primarily indicated in which of the following conditions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antispasmodic drugs are primarily indicated in which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer: Gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antispasmodics, such as antimuscarinics, may be used in the management of irritable bowel syndrome. Other antispasmodics used include direct-acting smooth muscle relaxants such as mebeverine, alverine, and peppermint oil. Antispasmodics are contraindicated in bowel obstruction and severe inflammatory bowel disease. Antispasmodics are occasionally of value in treating abdominal cramp associated with diarrhoea but they should not be used for primary treatment. Antispasmodics should be avoided in young children with gastroenteritis because they are rarely effective and have troublesome side effects. Antimuscarinics are contraindicated in urinary retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Metabolic hyperaemia harmonizes local blood flow with local O2 demand. If there is...

    Correct

    • Metabolic hyperaemia harmonizes local blood flow with local O2 demand. If there is an increase in metabolic rate, the production of vasoactive metabolites increases. These metabolites act locally on the surrounding arterioles, causes vasodilation and an increase blood supply.

      Which of these metabolites is the most potent vasodilator in skeletal muscle?

      Your Answer: K +

      Explanation:

      Hyperaemia is the process where the body adjusts blood flow to meet the metabolic needs of different tissues in health and disease. Vasoactive mediators that take part in this process include K+, adenosine, CO2, H+, phosphates and H2O2. Although the mechanism is not clear, all these mediators likely contribute to some extent at different points.

      Specific organs are more sensitive to specific metabolites:
      K+ and adenosine are the most potent vasodilators in skeletal muscles

      CO2 and K+ are the most potent vasodilators in cerebral circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:...

    Correct

    • For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:

      Your Answer: Depolarisation of the membrane must reach threshold potential

      Explanation:

      For an action potential to occur, the membrane must become more permeable to Na+and the Na+influx must be greater than the K+efflux. An action potential occurs when depolarisation of the membrane reaches threshold potential. The membrane must be out of the absolute refractory period, however an action potential can still occur in a relative refractory period but only in response to a larger than normal stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      196.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:...

    Incorrect

    • The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Factors decreasing FRC:
      Restrictive ventilatory defects e.g. pulmonary fibrosis
      Posture – lying supine
      Increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. obesity, pregnancy, ascites)
      Reduced muscle tone of diaphragm e.g. muscle relaxants in anaesthesia, neuromuscular disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      113.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man managed by the renal team for stage 4 chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man managed by the renal team for stage 4 chronic kidney disease which appears to be deteriorating presents with a history of shortness of breath and ankle oedema. His most recent blood tests shows low calcium levels.

      Which of these increases the renal reabsorption of calcium?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH), a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids, is the principal hormone that controls free calcium in the body.

      Its main actions are:
      Increases osteoclastic activity
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Digoxin is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Digoxin is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is contraindicated in:Supraventricular arrhythmias associated with accessory conduction pathways e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndromeVentricular tachycardia or fibrillationHeart conduction problems e.g. second degree or intermittent complete heart blockHypertrophic cardiomyopathy (unless concomitant atrial fibrillation and heart failure but should be used with caution)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant...

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.

      In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.
      Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:

      Respiratory alkalosis:
      – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)
      – Pulmonary embolism
      – Pneumothorax
      – CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)
      – High altitude
      – Pregnancy
      – Early stages of aspirin overdose

      Respiratory acidosis:
      – COPD
      – Life-threatening asthma
      – Pulmonary oedema
      – Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)
      – Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-BarrĂ© syndrome, muscular dystrophy
      – Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)
      – Obesity

      Metabolic alkalosis:
      – Vomiting
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Multi-organ failure
      – Cystic fibrosis
      – Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)
      – Cushing’s syndrome
      – Conn’s syndrome

      Metabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):
      – Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)
      – Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)
      – Renal failure
      – Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)

      Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):
      – Renal tubular acidosis
      – Diarrhoea
      – Ammonium chloride ingestion
      – Adrenal insufficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Incorrect

    • Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood-brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Continuous capillaries, found in the skin, lungs, muscles and CNS, are the most selective with low permeability, as junctions between the endothelial cells are very tight, restricting the flow of molecules with MW > 10,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old patient shows Low calcium levels and is on dialysis for chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient shows Low calcium levels and is on dialysis for chronic kidney disease.

      What percentage of total serum calcium is in the form of free or ionised Ca 2+?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Approximately half of total serum calcium is in the free or ionised Ca2+ state, 40% is attached to plasma proteins (mostly albumin), and the remaining 10% is in complexes with organic ions like citrate and phosphate. The ionized form is the only one that works.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - On which of the following types of receptors does loperamide act? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which of the following types of receptors does loperamide act?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opioid receptors

      Explanation:

      Loperamide inhibits acetylcholine release from the myenteric plexus acts by action on opioid mu-receptors, and this then reduces bowel motility. The intestinal transit time is increased, thereby facilitating water reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative intrapleural pressure causes dynamic compression of the airways.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs during forced expiration, when as the expiratory muscles contract, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Beta cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones: ...

    Incorrect

    • Beta cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. Within storage granules, a connecting peptide (C peptide) is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin, but most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. The effects of insulin are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is characterised by passive carrier-mediated transport down a chemical...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is characterised by passive carrier-mediated transport down a chemical concentration gradient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Facilitated diffusion is the process of spontaneous passive transport of molecules or ions down their concentration gradient across a cell membrane via specific transmembrane transporter (carrier) proteins. The energy required for conformational changes in the transporter protein is provided by the concentration gradient rather than by metabolic activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Adenosine is primarily indicated for which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Adenosine is primarily indicated for which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is usually the treatment of choice for terminating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia including those associated with accessory conduction pathways e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Compliance is decreased by all but which one of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Compliance is decreased by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aging

      Explanation:

      Factors increasing compliance:
      Old age
      Emphysema

      Factors decreasing compliance:
      Pulmonary fibrosis
      Pulmonary oedema
      Atelectasis
      Extremes of lung volumes (at higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding bile acids, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bile acids, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The main primary bile acids are deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid.

      Explanation:

      Bile acids have a hydrophobic and a hydrophilic end and in aqueous solution, bile salts orient themselves around droplets of lipid forming micelles to keep the lipid droplets dispersed. The principal primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid. They are made more soluble by conjugation with taurine or glycine in the liver. Of the bile acids excreted into the intestine, about 95% are reabsorbed into the portal circulation by active transport mechanisms in the distal ileum and recycled by the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) controls blood pressure and fluid balance.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) controls blood pressure and fluid balance.

      Which of the following sites produces the most angiotensinogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The liver

      Explanation:

      Angiotensinogen is an alpha-2-globulin generated predominantly by the liver and released into the blood. Renin, which cleaves the peptide link between the leucine and valine residues on angiotensinogen, converts it to angiotensin I.

      Angiotensinogen levels in the blood are raised by:
      Corticosteroid levels have risen.
      Thyroid hormone levels have risen.
      Oestrogen levels have risen.
      Angiotensin II levels have risen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Na+ is reabsorbed via the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter in which part of the loop of...

    Incorrect

    • Na+ is reabsorbed via the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter in which part of the loop of Henle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      In the thick ascending limb is the part of the loop of Henle in which there is active reabsorption of Na+and Cl- ions from the tubular fluid. This occurs via the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter on the apical membrane.
      This mechanism is by:
      1. Na+ions are transported across the basolateral membrane by Na+pumps and the Cl-ions by diffusion.
      2. K+leaks back into the tubular fluid via apical ROMK K+channels which creates a positive charge.
      3. This positive charge drives the reabsorption of cations (Na+, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+) through paracellular pathways.
      4. Due to the thick ascending limb being impermeable to water, the tubular fluid osmolality is reduced by ion reabsorption, the interstitial fluid osmolality is increased, and an osmotic difference is created.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You're evaluating a male patient who's having a lung function test done. In...

    Incorrect

    • You're evaluating a male patient who's having a lung function test done. In calculating the patient’s functional residual capacity, what parameters should you add to derive the functional residual capacity volume?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is an action of glucagon: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an action of glucagon:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulates glycogenolysis

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes.

      Explanation:

      Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The time interval from differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets averages 10 days. Thrombopoietin is the major regulator of platelet formation and 95% of this is produced by the liver. The normal platelet count is approximately 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal platelet lifespan is 10 days. Under normal circumstances, about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The mechanism of action of abciximab is by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of abciximab is by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocking the binding of fibrinogen to GPIIb/IIIa receptor sites

      Explanation:

      Abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors and prevents platelet aggregation by blocking the binding of fibrinogen to receptors on platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by enhancing the inhibition rate of clotting proteases by antithrombin III impairing normal haemostasis and inhibition of factor Xa. Low molecular weight heparins have a small effect on the activated partial thromboplastin time and strongly inhibit factor Xa. Enoxaparin is derived from porcine heparin that undergoes benzylation followed by alkaline depolymerization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms that a patient may experience in Addison's disease.

      Which of the following claims about Addison's disease is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACTH levels are elevated in primary insufficiency

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands produce too little steroid hormones, which causes Addison’s disease. The production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids are all altered. The most prevalent cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for 70-80 percent of cases.

      It affects more women than males and occurs most frequently between the ages of 30 and 50.

      The following are some of the clinical signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease:

      Weakness and sluggishness
      Hypotension is a condition in which the blood pressure (notably orthostatic hypotension)
      Vomiting and nausea
      Loss of weight
      Axillary and pubic hair loss
      Depression
      Hyperpigmentation is a condition in which a person’s (palmar creases, buccal mucosa and exposed areas more commonly affected)
      The following are the classic biochemical hallmarks of Addison’s disease:
      Hyponatraemia
      Hyperkalaemia
      Hypercalcaemia
      Hypoglycaemia
      Acidosis metabolica
      When ACTH levels are combined with cortisol levels, it is possible to distinguish between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency:
      In primary insufficiency, levels rise.
      In secondary insufficiency, levels are low or low normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the lower respiratory tract, airway resistance is mostly determined by the smallest bronchioles.

      Explanation:

      Airway resistance is primarily determined by the airway radius according to Poiseuille’s law, and whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. The major site of airway resistance is the medium-sized bronchi. The smallest airways would seem to offer the highest resistance, but they do not because of their branching parallel arrangement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The role of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The role of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Production of renin

      Explanation:

      Juxtaglomerular cells synthesise renin. These cells are specialised smooth muscle cells that are located in the walls of the afferent arterioles, and there are some in the efferent arterioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine Physiology (3/3) 100%
Physiology (5/8) 63%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Physiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Passmed