-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light headedness. Her heart rate is 200 beats per minute so you try with vagal manoeuvres and repeated boluses of adenosine up to a maximum dose of 500mcg/kg. What would you do next?
Your Answer: Synchronous DC shock 2J/kg
Correct Answer: Synchronous DC shock 1J/kg
Explanation:According to APLS, your next step should be one of the following: synchronous DC shock, amiodarone, or cardiology advice for alternative antiarrhythmics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of the foetus. During her visit, she is informed she is going to have a baby boy. What will be the chromosomal arrangement of the baby?
Your Answer: 23 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)
Correct Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)
Explanation:In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant?
Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria
Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Explanation:Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a condition that occurs almost exclusively in males. This condition is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern It is characterized by neurological and behavioural abnormalities and the overproduction of uric acid. Uric acid is a waste product of normal chemical processes and is found in blood and urine. Excess uric acid can be released from the blood and build up under the skin and cause gouty arthritis (arthritis caused by an accumulation of uric acid in the joints). Uric acid accumulation can also cause kidney and bladder stones.The nervous system and behavioural disturbances experienced by people with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome include abnormal involuntary muscle movements, such as tensing of various muscles (dystonia), jerking movements (chorea), and flailing of the limbs (ballismus). People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome usually cannot walk, require assistance sitting, and generally use a wheelchair. Self-injury (including biting and head banging) is the most common and distinctive behavioural problem in individuals with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was diagnosed with laryngotracheobronchitis. If untreated at this stage which of the following would be the most probable outcome?
Your Answer: Complete resolution
Explanation:The prognosis for croup is excellent, and recovery is almost always complete with complications being quite rare. The possible complications are pneumonia, bacterial tracheitis, pulmonary oedema, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, lymphadenitis or otitis media. Bacterial tracheitis is a life-threatening infection that can arise after the onset of an acute viral respiratory infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
When assessing language development, which of the following is typical of a 2 1/2-year-old child?
Your Answer: Narrate stories
Correct Answer: Ask 'where' questions
Explanation:Language/Communication milestones of 2 years old:Points to things or pictures when they are named Knows names of familiar people and body parts Says sentences with 2 to 4 words Follows simple instructions Repeats words overheard in conversation Points to things in a book
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts?
Your Answer: The lack of amniotic fluid causes congenital heart disease
Correct Answer: There is a higher incidence of chorioamnionitis
Explanation:An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. It also leads to multiple complications, out of which the incidence of chorioamnionitis is very high. Other complications include fetal growth retardation, limb contractures, GI atresia, and even fetal death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?
Your Answer: Construction of 2 word phrases only by 2 and a half years
Correct Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness
Explanation:In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs. His mother denied any history of trauma. The boy had a sore throat a few weeks ago. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Coagulation profile
Explanation:This history is suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura following a respiratory infection. A typical rash involving thighs and buttocks is often seen in this age group. Coagulation profile is the suitable answer from the given answers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 4-year-old boy presents with offensive stool, clubbing of fingers, and recurrent chest pain. Choose the single most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: Sweat test
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic disease. A defective gene causes a thick, sticky build-up of mucus in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps bacteria leading to infections, extensive lung damage, and eventually, respiratory failure. In the pancreas, the mucus prevents the release of digestive enzymes that allow the body to break down food and absorb vital nutrients. Since the digestive enzymes are not being made, the food is not completely digested making them bulky, smelly, and hard to flush away. Finger clubbing is a prominent feature of cystic fibrosis on most patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?
Your Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with signs and symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Liver function tests reveal raised unconjugated bilirubin levels. Subsequent genetic testing led to a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason for the unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert's syndrome?
Your Answer: Reduced levels of CYP2C19
Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that results from defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronyl transferase – 1. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.The clinical presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome include:- Unconjugated hyperbilinaemia- Jaundice can occur during an intercurrent illnessManagement:Blood investigations usually reveal a rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or intravenous nicotinic acid.No treatment required for these patients.Other options:- CYP2C9 deficiency causes reduced warfarin metabolism, and subsequent enhanced drug effects. – Pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption and certain drugs are common causes of raised GGT levels- Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin is related to the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome- Reduced CYP2C19 levels can lead to the disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs such as proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants and sedatives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She anxiously explained that he was not responding to loud sounds. He was vocalizing at the presentation and he had normal motor milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Assess Developmental Milestones
Correct Answer: Arrange Hearing test
Explanation:History is suggestive of a possible hearing impairment. As the baby is vocalizing and has normal motor development, an isolated hearing problem is possible. A hearing test will confirm the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 6 month old baby can squeeze an object against his palm, can vocalize and can sit with support. But he cannot hold objects between his index finger and the thumb. He cannot sit without support and he doesn't have stranger fear. Which of the following is correct regarding his development?
Your Answer: Delayed motor milestones
Correct Answer: Normal development
Explanation:Children are able to use a palmar grasp by the age of 6 months and use a pincer grasp by the age of 9 to 10 months. They can sit with support by 6 months and sit without support by 7 to 9 months. They can vocalize by 3 months. Stranger fear appears from 7 to 10 months. So this baby’s development is normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?
Your Answer: Uses a pincer grasp
Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth
Explanation:6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular rash. She had a previous history of flu-like illness and sore throat diagnosed as tonsillitis for which she was prescribed Amoxicillin. On examination, she has widespread cervical lymphadenopathy and petechiae on her palate. What is the most likely underlying pathogen?
Your Answer: Epstein Barr Virus
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely underlying pathogen is the Epstein Barr virus (EBV).An Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection most commonly results in upper respiratory tract symptoms with fever and sore throat. Lymphadenopathy is frequently palpable on examination. Splenomegaly may also occur, and for this reason, patients diagnosed with glandular fever should be advised to avoid contact sports for one month following diagnosis. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is also associated with EBV infection. The vast majority of patients with active EBV infection will develop a widespread rash if given amoxicillin, therefore, phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is recommended for the treatment of a suspected bacterial throat infection to prevent this complication occurring for individuals who have EBV infection.Other options:- Coronavirus: This is one of the causes of the common cold and is frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, the presenting features are more suggestive of an EBV infection.- Group A Streptococcus: Streptococci are classified into two main groups| alpha-haemolytic and beta-haemolytic. Group A Streptococcus belongs to the beta-haemolytic group. Group A streptococcal infection is a common cause of bacterial tonsillitis. It is possible that the child, in this case, had streptococcal tonsillitis and has had a drug reaction to the amoxicillin. However her age, flu-like symptoms and petechiae on her palate all point to an EBV infection and amoxicillin resulting in a rash.- Parainfluenza: Parainfluenza viruses are one of many causes of the common cold and can cause pharyngitis. They are the leading cause of viral croup.- Rhinovirus: Rhinoviruses are one of many causes of the common cold and are frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, are other factors suggesting EBV infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately. Which of the following is a complication of ROP in an infant?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinopathy of prematurity affects infants born early, and is due to the abnormal growth of retinal vasculature as opposed to vascular occlusion often see in adults. Though most babies with ROP can see normally, the most significant complication of ROP Is retinal detachment which can lead to blindness. Other structures in the eye such as the optic nerve or the fovea however, are not affected. Children may develop nystagmus as a result of poor sight in the affected eye(s).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?
Your Answer: Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe
Explanation:The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days later, he develops jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. What is he suffering from now?
Your Answer: Cholestatic jaundice
Explanation:Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. As the bile doesn’t move into the small intestine, stools are pale.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?
Your Answer: 9
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1| Verbal response – 3| Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
What is the primary reason for a written protocol?
Your Answer: Inform the ethical committee
Correct Answer: Document the process of the trial in advance
Explanation:A written protocol is important in clinical research as it helps to decrease bias with early findings as the process of the trial has been documented in advance. To show that the study has been properly undertaken before commencing, the investigators must document their names| they must describe the process, detail the analysis that will be undertaken, and provide a power calculation. The ethics committee does not always need to see the protocol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for abnormally short stature amongst children?
Your Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Familial/inherited short stature is the most likely and commonest factor resulting in short stature among the children. Klinefelter syndrome is characterised by tall stature, widely spaces nipples and infertility. Other factors include congenital heart disease, maternal deprivation and diabetes mellitus but these are the rare causes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain, fever, and listlessness. She doesn’t want to eat and the doctors noticed a bloody nappy. Upon clinical examination she’s found to be tachycardic and with cool peripheries. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Resuscitate with intravenous fluids and commence triple antibiotics
Explanation:This clinical case is most probably due to intussusception complicated by sepsis. Regardless of the cause, the baby is sick and in a critical condition. The first thing to do is to preserve the vital signs and resuscitate with IV fluids. As sepsis is suspected, you should also start on triple antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about two weeks ago and started on an insulin pump. Which of the following complications is least likely to occur due to the treatment modality adopted?
Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: Lipoatrophy
Explanation:Among the given options, lipoatrophy takes time to develop as it is a long-term complication of insulin therapy. Since it has only been two weeks since the initiation of insulin therapy, it is unlikely to occur so early.The risk of lipoatrophy is reduced with newer insulins and also can be avoided by site rotation.However, anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, infection and abscesses at the site of an insulin pump can occur in this patient as a complication of insulin therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart rate but is in respiratory distress. Which of the following syndromes is most likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Down syndrome
Correct Answer: Werdnig–Hoffman disease (spinomuscular atrophy type 1)
Explanation:The spinal muscular atrophies (SMAs) comprise a group of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by progressive weakness of the lower motor neurons. several types of spinal muscular atrophies have been described based on age when accompanying clinical features appear. The most common types are acute infantile (SMA type I, or Werdnig-Hoffman disease), chronic infantile (SMA type II), chronic juvenile (SMA type III or Kugelberg-Welander disease), and adult-onset (SMA type IV) forms.SMA type I – Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman diseasePatients present before 6 months of age, with 95% of patients having signs and symptoms by 3 months. They have severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone (hypotonia). Bulbar dysfunction includes poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure. Patients have no involvement of the extraocular muscles, and facial weakness is often minimal or absent. They have no evidence of cerebral involvement, and infants appear alert.Reports of impaired fetal movements are observed in 30% of cases, and 60% of infants with SMA type I are floppy babies at birth. Prolonged cyanosis may be noted at delivery. In some instances, the disease can cause fulminant weakness in the first few days of life. Such severe weakness and early bulbar dysfunction are associated with short life expectancy, with a mean survival of 5.9 months. In 95% of cases, infants die from complications of the disease by 18 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus
Explanation:The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress
Explanation:Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes macrocephaly?
Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Efavirenz
Correct Answer: Zidovudine
Explanation:Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?
Your Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:Changes in breast size and/or shape| asymmetric breastsPalpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrantSkin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair folliclesNipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged dischargeAxillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissueIn advanced stages: ulcerations
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)