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  • Question 1 - A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neuron...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neuron facial nerve palsy. He was known to be on warfarin for a mitral valve replacement and had been adequately anticoagulated. He was also taking furosemide and had recently been started on St John's wort for low mood.

      On examination, his pulse was 90 bpm and regular, and his blood pressure was 150/80 mmHg. Cardiac examination demonstrated normal prosthetic valve sounds with an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. CT scan showed evidence of a left middle cerebral artery infarction.

      What is the possible explanation for the presentation?

      Your Answer: St John's wort is prothrombotic

      Correct Answer: St John's wort reduces the activity of warfarin

      Explanation:

      St John’s wort interferes with warfarin by increasing its breakdown and decreasing its effectiveness. This leads to the need for adjustment in the dose of warfarin and careful attention to monitoring if the patient decides to continue with the drug. Ideally, an alternative antidepressant should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis. His initial blood results revealed raised calcium and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). He has a history of hypertension, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes.

      His most recent results have arrived on the ward, showing:
      Hb: 13.8 g/dL
      WCC: 7.7 x 10^9/L
      Plts: 212 x 10^9/L
      Na+: 138 mmol/L
      K+: 4.7 mmol/L
      Ca+2: 2.4 mmol/L
      Urea: 7.2 mmol/L
      Creatinine: 104 mmol/L
      Albumin: 38 g/L
      IgG: 24 g/L (6.0-13.0)
      IgA: 2.1 g/L (0.8-3.0)
      IgM: 1.3 g/L (0.4-2.5)
      Trace amounts of Bence Jones protein have also been detected in the urine. CXR shows normal heart and mediastinal contours, clear lungs bilaterally, osteopenia of the bony skeleton with no lytic lesions.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Waldenstrِom's macroglobulinaemia

      Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils in peripheral blood film

      Explanation:

      Hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood film is suggestive of megaloblastic changes in bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past.

      The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?

      Your Answer: Domperidone

      Correct Answer: Aprepitant

      Explanation:

      Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      352.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old female who was on chemotherapy developed a high-grade fever and productive...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female who was on chemotherapy developed a high-grade fever and productive cough over 2 days. On examination, there was evidence of a chest infection. Her WBC was 2100/ml. What is the most suitable treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Piperacillin+tazobactam

      Explanation:

      This patient has leukopenia following chemotherapy and she is more prone to severe bacterial infections. Neutropenic sepsis is common among cancer patients and it is one of the main reasons for death amongst these patients. As the first line monotherapy for high-risk patients, Piperacillin-tazobactam, Cefepime, Meropenem and Imipenem-cilastatin can be started as they all have antipseudomonal activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia presents with fever and worsening of recurrent back pain. There is no history of weight loss or night sweats.

      The investigations done on her arrival show:
      Hb: 7.8 g/dL
      WCC: 10.1 x10^9/L
      Plts: 475 x10^9/L
      Reticulocytes: 12%
      Serum total bilirubin: 88 μmol/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vaso-occlusive event

      Explanation:

      This patient is having vaso-occlusive event/crisis (thrombotic crisis) which is a type of sickle cell crisis. It may be associated with ostealgia.

      There is no evidence of an aplastic crisis in this case as the haemoglobin level is reasonable with a good reticulocyte count. Conversely, the haemoglobin is not low enough and reticulocyte count and bilirubin are not high enough for a haemolytic crisis.

      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises. The four main types of sickle cell crises are thrombotic crisis (painful or vaso-occlusive crisis), sequestration crisis, aplastic crisis, and haemolytic crisis.

      Thrombotic crisis is precipitated by infection, dehydration, alcohol, change in temperature, and deoxygenation. Sequestration crisis is characterised by acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates). Aplastic crisis is characterised by a sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis. It usually occurs secondary to parvovirus infection. In haemolytic crisis, a fall in haemoglobin occurs secondary to haemolysis. It is a rare type of sickle cell crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been identified as having factor V Leiden. How does this particular inherited thrombophilia increase her risk of venous thromboembolic events?

      Your Answer: Activated factor V is inactivated much more slowly by activated protein C

      Explanation:

      In patients with factor V Leiden, inactivation of the active factor V (a clotting factor) by active protein C occurs 10x more slowly than normal. Therefore, this condition is also called activated protein C resistance.

      Factor V Leiden is the most commonly inherited thrombophilia, being present in around 5% of the UK’s population. It occurs due to gain-of-function mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old male patient presents to the urology clinic with a one-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient presents to the urology clinic with a one-month history of passing frank haematuria. Flexible cystoscopy shows a mass of the bladder wall and biopsy reveals transitional cell carcinoma.

      Out of the following, which industry has he most likely worked in?

      Your Answer: Rubber industry

      Correct Answer: Dyestuffs and pigment manufacture

      Explanation:

      Exposure to aniline dyes is a risk factor for transitional cell carcinoma. Aniline dyes are used in dyestuffs and pigment manufacturing.

      The other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
      1. Feed production may expose to aflatoxin (hepatocellular carcinoma).

      2. Being a military personnel may expose to mustard gas (lung cancer).

      3. Rubber industry may expose to nitrosamines (oesophageal and gastric cancer).

      4. Refrigerant production before 1974 may expose to vinyl chloride (hepatic angiosarcoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs.

      Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?

      Your Answer: Uroporphyrin

      Correct Answer: Coproporphyrin

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal bleeding and is generally well apart from occasional diarrhoea. She has previously attended a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour and is now brought in by her mother having consumed a number of pills. Her mother has had recurrent venous thromboses, but there is no family history of a bleeding disorder.

      Her full blood count (FBC) is normal, but her coagulation profile shows:
      Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 60 secs (28-38 secs)
      Prothrombin time (PT): no clot after 120 secs (10-14 secs)
      Fibrinogen: 3.6 g/L (2-4 g/L)

      What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Inherited factor VII deficiency

      Correct Answer: Warfarin overdose

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits the vitamin K-dependent procoagulants II, VII, IX, and X as well as anticoagulant protein C and S. It is highly protein-bound and can be displaced by a wide variety of drugs. It has a half-life of 36-48 hours.

      Bleeding is the major side effect. Easy bruising, as seen in this case, is commonly seen in patients of warfarin overdose. Grossly prolonged PT and lesser increase in APTT may be seen in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      121.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight loss and anorexia. Tumour marker profile shows an elevated level of bombesin.

      Out of the following, which is the most likely cancer to account for this result?

      Your Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bombesin is a tumour marker elevated in small cell lung carcinomas, as well as in gastric carcinomas and retinoblastomas.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      391.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried out.

      Which one of the following is mostly associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Deletions of chromosome 8

      Correct Answer: Deletions of chromosome 5

      Explanation:

      Deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7 is a poor prognostic feature for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic peripheral neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10

      Explanation:

      The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      90.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden.

      Following blood results are obtained:
      Plts: 220 x 10^9/L
      PT: 11 secs
      APTT: 76 secs
      Factor VIIIc activity: Normal

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 41-year-old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been smoking for 25 years and has a past history of regular cannabis use. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell laryngeal cancer

      Explanation:

      Progressive hoarseness of the voice is a very typical and early finding in people suspected to have squamous cell laryngeal cancer. Due to mechanical compression, patients might experience dysphagia as well as pain. The ‘lump in the throat sensation is not uncommon too. Haemoptysis might be present, together with respiratory symptoms such as dyspnoea. Other symptoms consist of constitutional complaints, such as weight loss or fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric tumour is revealed, later established as an adenocarcinoma. The patient refuses any treatment and claims that his condition is not influencing the quality of his life. Clinical examination has nothing particularly interesting to show and the patient seems to be conscious of his decision, regardless of the likely curative nature of surgery. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respect his wishes and book a follow-up appointment for four weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man is investigated for lethargy. His full blood count (FBC) report...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is investigated for lethargy. His full blood count (FBC) report shows:

      Hb: 8.6 g/dL
      Plts: 42 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 36.4 x 10^9/L

      His blood film report reveals 30% myeloblasts with Auer rods. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following is associated with a good prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Translocation between chromosome 15 and 17

      Explanation:

      A translocation between chromosome 15 and 17 is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL), which is known to carry a good prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly. The disease has poor prognosis if:

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      APL is an aggressive form of AML. It is associated with t(15;17) and has a good prognosis. The general age of presentation is less than that in other types of AML (average age is 25 years old). On blood film, abundant Auer rods are seen with myeloperoxidase staining. Thrombocytopaenia or DIC is seen in patients presenting with this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia...

    Incorrect

    • What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      5-15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of being unwell and temperature of 38.1°C. She is a known case of neuroendocrine cancer of the cervix, treated with carboplatin and etoposide. Her last treatment was eight days ago.
      Blood cultures are taken and she is started on neutropenic sepsis protocol.

      What will gram-staining of the blood cultures most likely show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive cocci

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is reviewed in the hospital clinic and started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).

      Which of the following should be the most appropriate treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue on LMWH for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with active cancer are at a continuous risk of having venous thromboembolism (VTE), such as DVT. Therefore, a six-month course of an anticoagulant such as LMWH is recommended. LMWH is the drug of choice since its side effects can be reversed and it can be stopped easily in case of a cancer-related bleed, for example, massive haemoptysis in a patient with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was treated with radiotherapy which led to complete remission.

      What is the most likely long-term risk of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary cancer

      Explanation:

      The major delayed problem with radiotherapy is the development of secondary cancers. This risk begins to appear ten years after therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pO2 but normal oxygen saturation

      Explanation:

      Normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation is characteristic of methemoglobinemia.

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man complains of weight loss, fatigue, fever and abdominal discomfort. Abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of weight loss, fatigue, fever and abdominal discomfort. Abdominal ultrasound reveals massive splenomegaly and the lab results return the following: WBC=127, Hgb=8.7, Plt=138. Basophils were also found on the peripheral blood film. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CML

      Explanation:

      CML is a myeloproliferative disorder involving neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially granulocytes and their precursors. The non-acute symptoms of marked splenomegaly and anaemia accompanied by of fever and abdominal discomfort rules out the other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums....

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. Her complete blood count, coagulation profile, and blood film are requested. The results are as follows:

      Hb: 8.6 g/dL
      WCC: 2.3 x 10^9/L
      Plts: 18 x 10^9/L
      Coagulation profile: deranged
      Blood film: bilobed large mononuclear cells

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      This is a picture of bone marrow failure secondary to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

      Other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Von Willebrand disease: may present with epistaxis and bleeding gums in severe cases but rarely with abnormalities on blood results.

      2. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: mostly seen in children.

      3. Lymphoma: usually presents with rubbery enlargement of lymph nodes.

      4. Warfarin overdose: no bilobed large mononuclear cells seen on blood film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old smoker with testicular cancer presents with exertional dyspnoea, wheezing, and persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old smoker with testicular cancer presents with exertional dyspnoea, wheezing, and persistent non-productive cough. He completed a course of chemotherapy comprising of cisplatin, bleomycin, and etoposide three months ago. On examination, there are fine bilateral basal crackles.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bleomycin toxicity

      Explanation:

      The cytotoxic drug bleomycin can cause bleomycin-induced pneumonitis (BIP). It usually occurs during chemotherapy but can also occur up to six months post-therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks. She has angular stomatitis but no koilonychia. What is the most probable cell type to be seen in her blood film?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrocytes

      Explanation:

      This is a case of Vit. B12 or folic acid deficiency. The anaemia with angular stomatitis is highly suggestive of Vit. B12 or folate deficiency. The absence of koilonychia excludes Iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Female sex

      Explanation:

      Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.

      Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
      1. Male sex
      2. Age >70 years
      3. Lymphocyte count >50
      4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
      5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
      6. Raised LDH
      7. CD38 expression positive

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 62-year-old man presents with haematuria. Cystoscopy is carried out which reveals transitional...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with haematuria. Cystoscopy is carried out which reveals transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      Occupational exposure to which of the following is a recognised risk factor for bladder cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for bladder cancer are:

      1. Smoking
      2. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry
      3. Exposure to rubber manufacturing
      4. Cyclophosphamides
      5. Schistosomiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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Haematology & Oncology (6/15) 40%
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