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Question 1
Correct
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A 26 year old patient sustains a 4th degree perineal tear following delivery of her 1st baby. Your consultant agrees to supervise you repair the tear. From the list below what is the most appropriate suture option for repairing the anal mucosa?
Your Answer: 3-0 polyglactin interrupted sutures
Explanation:Repair the vaginal mucosa using rapidly absorbed suture material on a large, round body needle. Start above the apex of the cut or tear (as severed vessels retract slightly) and use a continuous stitch to close the vaginal mucosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Correct
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What type of drug is clavulanic acid?
Your Answer: Beta-lactamase inhibitor
Explanation:Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is most often combined with a penicillin to form Augmentin or Co-amoxiclav for greater antibiotic efficacy. The drug works by irreversibly binding to enzymes present in bacteria which posses the Beta-lactamase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for inactivating Beta-Lactam antibiotics such as penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Correct
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When is the earliest appropriate gestational age to perform amniocentesis?
Your Answer: 15+0 weeks
Explanation:The best time to perform amniocentesis is at the gestational age of 15 weeks or more. There is increased risk of abortion, respiratory problems and fetal talipes if amniocentesis is performed before the gestational age of 14 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is at 39+5 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?
Your Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 to 41+6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 and 36+6 weeks. Only 1% of women who go into PROM have risk of having serious neonatal infections.
Management of PROM:
60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
Induction is appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and more than 24 hours post rupture when labour hasn’t started.
If < 34 weeks, induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Correct
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Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infection and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. Other non albicans species include C.tropicalis, C.glabrata, C.krusei and C.parapsilosis. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?
Your Answer: >30 mg/mmol
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia is defined as hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week. Significant proteinuria = urinary protein: creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following statements is TRUE?
Your Answer: it occurs in 5-10% of pregnancies
Correct Answer: it occurs in 2-5% of pregnancies
Explanation:Gestational Diabetes occurs in 2-9% of all the pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Correct
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A fibroid is a type of
Your Answer: Leiomyoma
Explanation:A fibroid is a benign smooth muscle tumour or Leiomyoma. As such it is something of a misnomer. Leiomyosarcoma and Angioleiomyoma are malignant tumours of smooth muscle under the WHO sort tissue tumour classification Rhabdomyoma is a skeletal muscle tumour Myofibroma is seen in fibromatosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the prevalence of antiphospholipid syndrome in patients with recurrent miscarriage?
Your Answer: 15%
Explanation:Anti phospholipid syndrome is an autoimmune disorder in which abnormal antibodies are formed which increases the risk of blood clots to develop in vessels and leads to recurrent miscarriages to occurs. The changes of recurrent miscarriage in a previously known case of APL is 15%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
