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  • Question 1 - All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy...

    Correct

    • All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      A common complication of long term lithium therapy results in most cases of lithium intoxication. It is caused by reduced excretion of the drug which can be due to several factors including deterioration of renal function, dehydration, hyponatraemia, infections, and co-administration of diuretics or NSAIDs or other drugs that may interact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      958.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:

      Your Answer: Scanning/staccato speech

      Correct Answer: Hypertonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia means decreased muscle tone. It can be a condition on its own, called benign congenital hypotonia, or it can be indicative of another problem where there is progressive loss of muscle tone, such as muscular dystrophy or cerebral palsy. It is usually detected during infancy. Hypotonia is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      358
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with decreased pain and temperature sensation in both lower extremities?

      Your Answer: The lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The main function of the spinothalamic tract is to carry pain and temperature via the lateral part of the pathway and crude touch via the anterior part. The spinothalamic tract pathway is an imperative sensory pathway in human survival because it enables one to move away from noxious stimuli by carrying pain and temperature information from the skin to the thalamus where it is processed and transmitted to the primary sensory cortex. The primary sensory cortex communicates with the primary motor cortex, which lies close to it, to generate rapid movement in response to potentially harmful stimuli. Furthermore, the spinothalamic tract has a role in responding to pruritogens, causing us to itch. Interestingly, itching suppresses the spinothalamic tract neuron response to the histamine effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      103.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion of the temporal lobe. What type of visual field defect would you most expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) carry visual information, via the upper and lower optic radiations, to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe:
      The upper optic radiation carries fibres from the superior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants) and travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex.
      The lower optic radiation carries fibres from the inferior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants) and travels through the temporal lobe to reach the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema and erythema of the arm in a patient who underwent modified radical mastectomy and radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Axillary lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Arm oedema is one of the sequelae after breast cancer surgery and radiation therapy. Arm oedema in the breast cancer patient is caused by interruption of the axillary lymphatic system by surgery or radiation therapy, which results in the accumulation of fluid in subcutaneous tissue in the arm, with decreased distensibility of tissue around the joints and increased weight of the extremity. Chronic inflammatory changes result in both subcutaneous and lymph vessel fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient with diplopia is found to have eye deviation downwards and outwards....

    Incorrect

    • A patient with diplopia is found to have eye deviation downwards and outwards. The likely nerves that are affected are:

      Your Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The results of an oculomotor (CN III) nerve palsy are a depressed and abducted (down and out) eye, ptosis, diplopia, and a fixed and dilated pupil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      58386.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 24-year-old waiter cuts his hand on a dropped plate that smashed and...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old waiter cuts his hand on a dropped plate that smashed and damages the nerve that innervates opponens digiti minimi.
      The opponens digiti minimi muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The deep branch of the ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Opponens digiti minimi is a triangular-shaped muscle in the hand that forms part of the hypothenar eminence. It originates from the hook of the hamate bone and the flexor retinaculum and inserts into the medial border of the 5thmetacarpal.
      Opponens digiti minimi is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery.
      Opponens digiti minimi draws the fifth metacarpal bone anteriorly and rotates it, bringing the fifth digiti into opposition with the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      229.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture?

      Your Answer: Superior rectus

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus

      Explanation:

      A blowout fracture is an isolated fracture of the orbital walls without compromise of the orbital rims. The common mechanisms are falls, high-velocity ball-related sports, traffic accidents, and interpersonal violence.

      The frontal, ethmoidal, sphenoid, zygomatic, and lacrimal bones form the bony structures of the orbit. Medially, the maxillary and the lacrimal bone form the lacrimal fossa. Together with the lamina papyracea of the ethmoid bone, they form the medial wall. The sphenoid bone forms the posterior wall and houses the orbital canal. Lateral to the orbital canal lies the superior orbital fissure housing cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI. The zygomatic bone forms the lateral wall. Superior and inferior borders are the frontal and maxillary bones. Located around the globe of the eye and attached to it are 6 extraocular muscles; the 4 rectus muscles and the superior and inferior oblique muscles. The fat and connective tissue around the globe help to reduce the pressure exerted by the extraocular muscles.

      The goal of treatment is to restore aesthetics and physiological function. The problem with orbital blowout fractures is that the volume of the orbit can be increased, resulting in enophthalmos and hypoglobus. In addition, the orbital tissue and inferior rectus muscle can become trapped by the bony fragments leading to diplopia, limitation of gaze, and tethering. Finally, the orbital injury can lead to retinal oedema, hyphema, and significant loss of vision.

      While some cases may be managed with conservative care, others may require some type of surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - External haemorrhoids may cause anal pain. When explaining to your patient why it...

    Correct

    • External haemorrhoids may cause anal pain. When explaining to your patient why it does so, which of the following nerves will you point out as being affected?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The pain associated with external haemorrhoids is carried by a branch of the pudendal nerve, specifically the somatic fibres (S2-S4).

      It innervates the external anal sphincter and most of the skin over the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      198.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Correct

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding the brachioradialis muscle, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the brachioradialis muscle, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It is a muscle of the anterior compartment of the forearm

      Correct Answer: It assists with supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joints

      Explanation:

      Brachioradialis is a fusiform muscle located in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Along with extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus, it comprises the radial group of forearm muscles, which belong to the superficial layer of posterior forearm muscles. Although anatomically part of the posterior forearm muscles, which are known to be forearm extensors, brachioradialis’ fibre orientation enables it to rather flex the forearm, and aids in supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joint.

      The brachioradialis muscle originates from the upper two-thirds of the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus and the anterior surface of the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. It slides over the lateral surface of the elbow joint, entering the anterolateral cubital area. The muscle fibres course inferiorly down the radial part of the anterior forearm, forming a thick tendon in approximately the middle of the forearm. This tendon then traverses the remainder of the forearm, inserting near the wrist, just proximal to the styloid process of radius.

      Brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve (from the root values C5-C6) that stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Blood supply to the brachioradialis muscle comes from branches of the radial artery, radial recurrent artery and the radial collateral branch of the deep brachial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old athlete suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates the gluteus...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old athlete suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates the gluteus minimus muscle.

      Which of the following nerves innervates the gluteus minimus muscle?

      Your Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      Gluteus minimus is the smallest muscle of the glutei. It is located just beneath the gluteus medius muscle. Gluteus minimus predominantly acts as a hip stabilizer and abductor of the hip.
      The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus minimus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your patient is complaining of elbow extension weakness and loss of sensation in her middle finger? She also has pain and tenderness in her cervical region, which is caused by a herniated disc, all after a whiplash-type injury in a car accident.

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      A C7 spinal nerve controls elbow extension and some finger extension.

      Damage to this nerve can result in a burning pain in the shoulder blade or back of the arms. The ability to extend shoulders, arms, and fingers may also be affected. Dexterity may also be compromised in the hands or fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The following structures all lie anteriorly to the oesophagus EXCEPT for the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following structures all lie anteriorly to the oesophagus EXCEPT for the:

      Your Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Thoracic duct

      Explanation:

      Posterior to the oesophagus, the thoracic duct is on the right side inferiorly but crosses to the left more superiorly (at T5).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      74.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Correct

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.

      Which of these anatomic structures is the deepest structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:

      Skin
      Fatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)
      Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)
      Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique muscles
      Rectus abdominis muscle
      Aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis
      Fascia transversalis
      Extraperitoneal fat
      Parietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      141.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient presents complaining of visual loss. On examination you note a contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents complaining of visual loss. On examination you note a contralateral homonymous hemianopia. Where is the most likely site of the lesion:

      Your Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Correct Answer: Optic tract

      Explanation:

      At the optic chiasm, fibres from the medial (nasal) half of each retina crossover, forming the right and left optic tracts.
      The left optic tract contains fibres from the left lateral (temporal) retina and the right medial retina.
      The right optic tract contains fibres from the right lateral retina and the left medial retina.
      Each optic tract travels to its corresponding cerebral hemisphere to reach its lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) located in the thalamus where the fibres synapse.
      A lesion of the optic tract will cause a contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man suffers from an open femoral shaft fracture after being involved...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man suffers from an open femoral shaft fracture after being involved in a road traffic accident. As a consequence of his injury, the nerve that was damaged innervates the popliteus muscle.

      In which of the following nerves is the popliteus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The popliteus muscle is innervated by the tibial nerve (L4, 5 and S1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      149.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults?

      Your Answer: L3/L4

      Correct Answer: L1/L2

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord starts at the foramen magnum, where it is continuous with the medulla oblongata, which is the most caudal portion of the brainstem.

      It then extends inferiorly through the vertebral canal. In adults, it usually ends at the level of the first or second lumbar vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:

      Your Answer: Resting tremor

      Explanation:

      An intention tremor is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction. Resting tremor may be seen in Parkinsonism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Where on the body is the radial artery pulsation best palpated? ...

    Correct

    • Where on the body is the radial artery pulsation best palpated?

      Your Answer: At the wrist just lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon

      Explanation:

      The radial artery lies lateral to the large tendon of the flexor carpi radialis muscle and anterior to the pronator quadratus at the distal end of the radius. The flexor carpi radialis muscle is used as a landmark in locating the pulse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Explanation:

      Side effects of metoclopramide are commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects and hyperprolactinemia. Therefore its use must be limited to short-term use. Metoclopramide can induce acute dystonic reactions which involve facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises. These dystonic effects are more common in the young girls and young women, and in the very old. These symptoms usually occur shortly after starting treatment with this drug and subside within 24 hours of stopping it. Abortion of dystonic attacks can be carried out by injection of an antiparkinsonian drug like procyclidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at analgesic doses:

      Your Answer: Severe cardiac failure

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Aspirin (at analgesic doses) is contraindicated in:
      People with a history of true hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates (symptoms of hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates include bronchospasm, urticaria, angioedema, and vasomotor rhinitis)
      People with active or previous peptic ulceration
      People with haemophilia or another bleeding disorder
      Children younger than 16 years of age (risk of Reye’s syndrome)
      People with severe cardiac failure
      People with severe hepatic impairment
      People with severe renal impairment

      N.B. Owing to an association with Reye’s syndrome, aspirin-containing preparations should not be given to children under 16 years, unless specifically indicated, e.g. for Kawasaki disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is first-line for management of status epilepticus: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is first-line for management of status epilepticus:

      Your Answer: Intramuscular diazepam

      Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment is with intravenous lorazepam if available. Intravenous diazepam is effective but it carries a high risk of thrombophlebitis so should only be used if intravenous lorazepam is not immediately available. Absorption of diazepam from intramuscular injection or from suppositories is too slow for treatment of status epilepticus. When facilities for resuscitation are not immediately available or if unable to secure immediate intravenous access, diazepam can be administered as a rectal solution or midazolam oromucosal solution can be given into the buccal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer: Acute myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Opioids should be avoided in people who have:
      A risk of paralytic ileus (opioids reduce gastric motility)
      Acute respiratory depressionAn acute exacerbation of asthma (opioids can aggravate bronchoconstriction as a result of histamine release)
      Conditions associated with increased intracranial pressure including head injury (opioids can interfere with pupillary response making neurological assessment difficult and may cause retention of carbon dioxide aggravating the increased intracranial pressure)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You proceed to administer lorazepam intravenously to a 21-year-old patient with status epilepticus....

    Correct

    • You proceed to administer lorazepam intravenously to a 21-year-old patient with status epilepticus. Which of the following best describes lorazepam's action?

      Your Answer: Potentiates effect of GABA

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is a type of benzodiazepine.

      Benzodiazepines are gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor agonists with sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant characteristics that promote inhibitory synaptic transmission across the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is correct about the extensor digitorum muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct about the extensor digitorum muscle?

      Your Answer: It extends the medial four digits at the metacarpophalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Extensor digitorum is a long muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm. Together with the extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis as well as the brachioradialis, it belongs to the group of superficial extensors of the forearm. These muscles can be easily palpated in the lateral aspect of the posterior forearm, especially during the extension of hand when they are contracted.

      Extensor digitorum runs from the lateral epicondyle of humerus to the medial four phalanges of the hand. In this way, it generates the pull for the extension of the four medial fingers in their metacarpophalangeal and both interphalangeal joints. Extensor digitorum also participates in the extension of the wrist.

      Extensor digitorum is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).

      Extensor digitorum is vascularized by the branches of three different arteries: (1) posterior interosseous artery, (2) radial recurrent artery, and (3) anterior interosseous artery. Anterior and posterior interosseous arteries are the branches of the common interosseous artery that arises from the ulnar artery. The radial recurrent artery is a branch of the radial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of...

    Correct

    • After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: 25 minutes

      Explanation:

      If seizures recur or fail to respond after initial treatment with benzodiazepines within 25 minutes of onset, phenytoin sodium, fosphenytoin sodium, or phenobarbital sodium should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      225.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a...

    Incorrect

    • A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a ladder. Significant bruising was found to be overlying his latissimus dorsi muscle.

      Which of the following statements regarding the latissimus dorsi muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: It is the most superficial back muscle

      Correct Answer: It raises the body towards the arm during climbing

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi muscle is a broad, flat muscle that occupies the majority of the lower posterior thorax. The muscle’s primary function is of the upper extremity but is also considered to be a respiratory accessory muscle.

      Latissimus dorsi is a climbing muscle. With the arms fixed above the head, it can raise the trunk upwards, together with the help of pectoralis major.

      Functionally, the latissimus dorsi muscle belongs to the muscles of the scapular motion. This muscle is able to pull the inferior angle of the scapula in various directions, producing movements on the shoulder joint (internal rotation, adduction and extension of the arm). It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6 – C8) from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, which enters the muscle on its deep surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated...

    Incorrect

    • All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Mandibular nerve

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the tongue are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve, except for the palatoglossus, which is innervated by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      164.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Central Nervous System (13/15) 87%
Pharmacology (9/9) 100%
Anatomy (12/21) 57%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (1/5) 20%
Head And Neck (2/3) 67%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Passmed