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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old male smoker, presented with shortness of breath, chronic cough and haemoptysis...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male smoker, presented with shortness of breath, chronic cough and haemoptysis over the last three months. He has developed a fat pad in the base of his neck, rounded face, acne and osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most likely pulmonary disease that is causing these symptoms and findings?

      Your Answer: Small-cell anaplastic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer is a highly aggressive form of lung cancer. It is thought to originate from neuroendocrine cells in the bronchus called Feyrter cells and is often associated to ectopic production of hormones like ADH and ACTH that result in paraneoplastic syndromes and Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by three factors:

      – Acetylcholine, from parasympathetic neurones of the vagus nerve that innervate parietal cells directly

      – Gastrin, produced by pyloric G-cells

      – Histamine, produced by mast cells.

      Gastric acid is inhibited by three factors:

      – Somatostatin

      – Secretin

      – Cholecystokinin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely...

    Incorrect

    • Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely affected in a patient who has lost the sensation of pain and temperature?

      Your Answer: Intermediolateral nucleus

      Correct Answer: Substantia gelatinosa

      Explanation:

      Substantia gelatinosa is one of the nuclei in the posterior grey column along side other posterior grey column nuclei like the nucleus dorsalis, nucleus proprius, and posteromarginal nucleus. These nuclei are a collection of cells in the posterior grey area found in throughout the spinal cord. The substantia gelatinosa receives direct input from the dorsal nerve roots (sensory), especially from thermoreceptors and nociceptors (receptors for temperature and pain).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in...

    Correct

    • A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?

      Your Answer: Superior ulnar collateral

      Explanation:

      The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A surgical registrar performing an adrenalectomy procedure on the left suprarenal gland of...

    Correct

    • A surgical registrar performing an adrenalectomy procedure on the left suprarenal gland of a 25 - year old male patient, accidentally jabbed and injured a vital structure that lies anterior to the left suprarenal organ. Which of the following was the structure most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      The adrenal (suprarenal) glands are organs of the endocrine system located on top of each of the kidneys. The left suprarenal gland, in question, is crescent in shape and slightly larger than the right suprarenal gland. It is posteriorly located to the lateral aspect of the head of the pancreas which is thus the most likely to be injured. The other organs like the duodenum, liver and the inferior vena cava are related to the right suprarenal gland. The spleen and the colon are not in close proximity with the left suprarenal gland and are not likely to be the organs injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones...

    Incorrect

    • Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones and muscles or glands. What happens during the activation of a nerve cell membrane?

      Your Answer: Sodium ions flow outward

      Correct Answer: Sodium ions flow inward

      Explanation:

      During the generation of an action potential, the membrane gets depolarized which cause the voltage gated sodium channels to open and sodium diffuses inside the neuron, resulting in the membrane potential moving towards a positive value. This positive potential will then open the voltage gated potassium channels and cause more K+ to move out decreasing the membrane potential and restoring the membrane potential to its resting value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?

      Your Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle

      Explanation:

      The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following muscles attach to the hyoid bone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles attach to the hyoid bone?

      Your Answer: Inferior pharyngeal constrictor

      Correct Answer: Middle pharyngeal constrictor

      Explanation:

      The hyoid bone is a horseshoe-shaped bone situated in the anterior midline of the neck between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. A large number of muscles attach to the hyoid: Superiorly – the middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle, hyoglossus muscle, genioglossus, intrinsic muscles of the tongue and suprahyoid muscles. Inferiorly – the thyrohyoid muscle, omohyoid muscle and sternohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year old gentleman, known with a history of peptic ulcer disease, was...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old gentleman, known with a history of peptic ulcer disease, was brought to the clinic in a dehydrated state with persistent vomiting. His blood investigations revealed:
      • sodium = 142 mmol/l
      • potassium = 2.6 mmol/l
      • chloride = 85 mmol/l
      • pH = 7.55
      • p(CO2) = 50 mmHg
      • p(O2) = 107 mmHg
      • standard bicarbonate = 40 mmol/l
      This patient has a:

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      High pH with high standard bicarbonate indicates metabolic alkalosis. The pa(CO2) was appropriately low in compensation. This is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis due to prolonged vomiting. Treatment includes treating the cause and intravenous sodium chloride with potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be affected following a knife wound to the lateral aspect of the knee?

      Your Answer: skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon, lateral meniscus

      Explanation:

      Skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon and lateral meniscus is the correct order of structures covering the lateral aspect of the knee joint from a superficial to deep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no history of fever and the diarrhoea stops on fasting. Which is the most likely type of diarrhoea that he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Osmotic

      Explanation:

      The different types of diarrhoea are:

      1. Secretory diarrhoea – Due to increased secretion or decreased absorption. There is minimal to no structural damage in this type. The most common cause is cholera toxin which stimulates secretion of anions (especially chloride), with sodium and water.

      2. Osmotic diarrhoea – Due to increased osmotic load, there is water loss. This occurs in cases of maldigestion syndromes, such as coeliac or pancreatic disease.

      3. Motility-related diarrhoea – Occurs in cases of abnormal gastrointestinal motility. Due to increased motility, there is poor absorption and this leads to diarrhoea. This is seen post-vagotomy or in diabetic neuropathy.

      4. Inflammatory diarrhoea – Due to damage to the mucosa or brush border, there is a loss of protein-rich fluids and poor absorption. Features of all the above three types can be seen in this type. Aetiology includes bacterial, viral, parasitic infections or autoimmune problems including inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Correct

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the following movements will be affected?

      Your Answer: Extension of the leg

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps muscle is a great extensor of the thigh. Therefore, following nerve injury or cutting nerve supply to the quadriceps will affect extension of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?

      Your Answer: Response of skeletal muscle to nerve stimulation is weakened

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disorder, myasthenia gravis leads to progressive muscle weakness. It occurs due to formation of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor of the motor endplate, which leads to impaired neuromuscular transmission. Thus, nerve stimulation will lead to a weakened muscle response, but direct electrical stimulation will bring about a normal response. Diagnostic test includes improvement of muscle weakness by small doses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine or edrophonium). However, a large dose of physostigmine worsens the weakness due to desensitisation of the endplate to persistent Ach. One of the investigative tools includes radiolabelled snake venom α-bungarotoxin. It is an in vitro study performed on muscle biopsy specimens and used to quantify the number of ACh receptors at the motor endplate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old woman with acute renal failure has a total plasma [Ca2+] =...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman with acute renal failure has a total plasma [Ca2+] = 2. 5 mmol/l and a glomerular filtration rate of 160 l/day. What is the estimated daily filtered load of calcium?

      Your Answer: 64 mmol/day

      Correct Answer: 240 mmol/day

      Explanation:

      Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the human body. The average adult body contains in total approximately 1 kg of calcium of which 99% is in the skeleton in the form of calcium phosphate salts. The extracellular fluid (ECF) contains approximately 22 mmol, of which about 9 mmol is in the plasma. About 40% of total plasma Ca2+ is bound to proteins and not filtered at the glomerular basement membrane. Therefore, the estimated daily filtered load is 1.5 mmol/l × 160 l/day = 240 mmol/day. The exact amount of free versus total Ca2+ depends on the blood pH: free Ca2+ increases during acidosis and decreases during alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells...

    Incorrect

    • The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells was blocked by a drug. Which of the following transmembrane proteins were blocked by this drug?

      Your Answer: Ca2+ channels

      Correct Answer: K+ channels

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential is due to selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions. The Na/K pump is responsible for the generation of a gradient across the membrane and it is due to the inherent ability of the K channels to allow diffusion back into the nerve at rest which charges the cells. In reality, the resting membrane potential is more positive because of small contributions by Na+ channels, Cl− channels and non-selective cation channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive...

    Correct

    • A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?

      Your Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
      • Pathology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the: ...

    Correct

    • Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the:

      Your Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      Structures passing through the foramen magnum include the medulla, meninges, tectorial membrane, anterior spinal artery, vertebral artery and spinal branches of the accessory nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo,...

    Correct

    • The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo, is formed when the midgut bends around which of the following arteries?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      In a developing foetus, the midgut develops to form most of the intestines. During this development process, the midgut usually bends around the superior mesenteric artery and forms what is referred to as the midgut loop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer: Left crus

      Correct Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.

      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:

      The motor and pre-motor areas

      The somato-sensory

      Auditory areas

      Motor speech

      Sensory speech

      Pre-frontal area

      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:

      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face

      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?

      Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:

      Your Answer: Transverse sinus

      Correct Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.

      Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.

      Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport...

    Correct

    • Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport of glucose in the renal tubular cells occurs via:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport with sodium

      Explanation:

      In 1960, Robert K. Crane presented for the first time his discovery of the sodium-glucose cotransport as the mechanism for glucose absorption. Glucose transport through biological membranes requires specific transport proteins. Transport of glucose through the apical membrane of renal tubular as well as intestinal epithelial cells depends on the presence of secondary active Na+–glucose symporters, SGLT-1 and SGLT-2, which concentrate glucose inside the cells, using the energy provided by co-transport of Na+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Correct

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: First heart sound

      Explanation:

      In the cardiac cycle, the closing of the atrioventricular (AV) valves coincides with the onset of ventricular systole. This event marks the beginning of the isovolumetric contraction phase, where the ventricles begin to contract, but the volume of blood in the ventricles remains the same because both the AV valves and the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary valves) are closed. The closing of the AV valves produces the first heart sound, known as “S1” or “lub.”

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach, which artery in this patient are you most likely to ligate to control the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Short gastric

      Correct Answer: Left gastric

      Explanation:

      The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the left gastric artery along with the right gastric artery. These two arteries are the ones to most likely be ligated if bleeding was to be stopped at the lesser curvature of the stomach. The splenic artery branches from the celiac branch and supplies the spleen. The left gastro-omental, the right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Penicillins and cephalosporins (e.g. cefuroxime, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone) inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking.

      Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin), tetracyclines, aminoglycosides and chloramphenicol act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis.

      Sulphonamides (e.g. trimethoprim, co-trimoxazole) work by inhibiting the synthesis of nucleic acid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology; Microbiology
      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Correct

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:

      Sodium = 132 mmol/l

      Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l

      Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl)

      Chloride = 109 μmol/l

      8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl)

      pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg

      p(O2) = 107 mmHg

      standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l.

      What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure...

    Incorrect

    • Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure of which one of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Ligamentum arteriosum

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect that results in a communication between the right and left atria of the heart and may involve the interatrial septum. It results from incomplete closure of the foramen ovale which is normally open during fetal life and closes just after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - An 80 year-old lady presents to the out patient clinic complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year-old lady presents to the out patient clinic complaining of chest pain of 2 months' duration with a normal electrocardiogram and cardiac enzymes. A computed tomographic scan is done which reveals a mass lesion involving a structure in the middle mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?

      Your Answer: Thoracic duct

      Correct Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The middle mediastinum is the broadest part of the mediastinal cavity containing the heart enclosed in the pericardium, ascending aorta, lower half of the superior vena cava with the azygos vein opening into it, the bifurcation of the trachea and the two bronchi, the pulmonary artery with its branches, pulmonary veins, phrenic nerves and bronchial lymph nodes. The most likely structure involved is the ascending aorta, perhaps with an aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery...

    Incorrect

    • In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?

      Your Answer: Superior rectal

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.

      Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.

      Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.

      Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.

      The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum...

    Incorrect

    • The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Frontal

      Correct Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Correct

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Explanation:

      The medial epicondyle of the humerus is the site of origin of this group of muscles of the forearm. It originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus by a common tendon. Fibres from the deep fascia of the forearm, near the elbow and septa, pass from this fascia between the muscles. These muscles include the pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to...

    Correct

    • A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to the emergency department. She was found to have a metabolic acidosis and decreased anion gap. The most likely cause of these findings in this patient would be?

      Your Answer: Hypoalbuminemia

      Explanation:

      A low anion gap might be caused by alterations in serum protein levels, primarily albumin (hypoalbuminemia), increased levels of calcium (hypercalcaemia) and magnesium (hypermagnesemia) or bromide and lithium intoxication. However, the commonest cause is hypoalbuminemia, thus if the albumin concentration falls, the anion gap will also be lower. The anion gap should be corrected upwards by 2.5 mmol/l for every 10g/l fall in the serum albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal...

    Correct

    • All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:

      Your Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe?

      Your Answer: Tensor veli palatini muscle

      Correct Answer: Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle

      Explanation:

      The pterygomandibular raphé (pterygomandibular ligament) provides attachment on its posterior border to the superior pharyngeal constrictor and on its anterior border to the buccinator muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a rare disorder of the neuromuscular junction. It can occur as a solitary diagnosis but it can also occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, particularly small-cell histology. It can also be associated with other cancers such as lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, T-cell leukaemia, non-small-cell lung cancer, prostate cancer and thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 24 year old mother is breastfeeding her first child. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old mother is breastfeeding her first child. Which of the following cellular adaptations occurred in her breast tissue to allow her to do this?

      Your Answer: Stromal hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Lobular hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of oestrogen in pregnancy, there is an increase in the number of lobules which will facilitate lactation.

      Steatocytes occur due to loss of weight and nutritional deficit.

      Metaplasia is a normal physiological process which is due to a change in normal epithelium with another type.

      Lobular atrophy will result in a decreased capacity to provide milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Female Health
      • Pathology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Correct Answer: Lactase

      Explanation:

      Lactase, an enzyme belonging to β-galactosidase family of enzymes, brings about the hydrolysis of the disaccharide lactose into galactose and glucose. In humans, it is present along the brush border membrane of the cells lining the small intestinal villi. Deficiency of lactase causes lactose intolerance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by S. aureus in all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Ulnar

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen,...

    Incorrect

    • During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen, the operating doctor discovers the large bowel is perforated. Which of the following characteristics of the bowel enabled the surgeon to identify it as the large bowel?

      Your Answer: Serosa

      Correct Answer: Epiploic appendages

      Explanation:

      The large intestine doesn’t have a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle. Instead, it has three strips of longitudinal muscle called taenia coli. The large intestine is covered with omental appendages that are fat filled. It is also folded into sacculations called haustrations. Serosa is a general term for the outermost coat or serous layer of a visceral structure that lies in the body cavities of the abdomen or thorax.

      Complete circular folds are only found in the small intestine.

      Valvulae conniventes or valves of Kerckring are the circular folds which are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent fever for the past 2 weeks. The patient claimed that he is an intravenous drug user. Following work up, the patient was diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial endocarditis is a fulminant illness lasting over days to weeks (<2weeks). It is most likely due to Staphylococcus aureus especially in intravenous drug abusers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Sclerosing adenosis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site....

    Incorrect

    • A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?

      Your Answer: T8

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg...

    Correct

    • What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Explanation:

      A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What is the normal glomerular filtration rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 125 mL/min

      Explanation:

      The normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in humans is 125 mL/min. After the age of 40, GFR decreases progressively by about 0.4–1.2 mL/min per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (7/8) 88%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Physiology (9/13) 69%
Anatomy (18/28) 64%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
Abdomen (6/9) 67%
General (1/3) 33%
Head & Neck (3/8) 38%
Lower Limb (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Renal (2/3) 67%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology; Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Female Health (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed