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  • Question 1 - Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?

      Your Answer: Harsh murmur that is uniform through diastole

      Correct Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border| this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk| S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad| patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with erythema of the palms and soles and maculopapular rash. His eyes and tongue were red. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hand foot-mouth disease

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki Disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium-sized arteries. Diagnostic criteria include fever of at least 5 days duration along with 4 or 5 of the principal clinical features – extremity changes, polymorphous rash, oropharyngeal changes, conjunctival injection and unilateral nonpurulent cervical lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with...

    Incorrect

    • A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect, includes the following: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary valve stenosis. The O2 saturation in patients with TOF is typically lower than normal and the condition usually becomes symptomatic early in life. A feature of the disease with high diagnostic significance is squatting or crouching of the infant as a compensatory mechanism to increase the peripheral vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party....

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party. Her friends state that she complained about palpitations prior to collapsing. On further history, it is revealed that she recently visited the dermatologist and was given an antibiotic prescription for an infected toe. She is reported to be allergic to penicillin. Her mother died of a sudden cardiac event when the girl was just 3 years old. An uncle and aunt also passed away suddenly at a young age. ECG shows sinus rhythm and a corrected QT interval of 550 ms. Which of the following most likely lead to the collapse in this young girl?

      Your Answer: Congenital long QT syndrome

      Explanation:

      Congenital LQTS arises from mutations in genes that code for ion channels within myocytes.These mutations all cause ventricular action potentials to be prolonged, resulting in a lengthened QT interval on ECG. The congenital long-QT syndrome (LQTS) is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia syndrome that represents a leading cause of sudden death in the young. LQTS is typically characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG and by the occurrence of syncope or cardiac arrest, mainly precipitated by emotional or physical stress.LQTS type 1Most common type of congenital LQTSDefect: loss of function mutation on the KCNQ1 gene located on chromosome 11p → defective slow delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channelSubtypesJervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome Associated with congenital deafnessAutosomal recessiveAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmiasRomano-Ward syndrome No associated deafnessAutosomal dominantAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Unilateral carotid sinus massage

      Correct Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease...

    Correct

    • All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CCHD) is a common cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. They can be classified as CCHD due to:- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased pulmonary flow, e.g., tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), pulmonary atresia, right-sided hypoplastic heart,- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased aortic flow, e.g., left-sided hypoplastic heart, interrupted arch, severe coarctation| – Bidirectional shunt, e.g., TGA, DORV, TA, etc. Eisenmenger syndrome is not a neonatal CCHD| rather it develops later in young adulthood secondary to various CHD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      102.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and oedema. On cardiac auscultation, he has a displaced apical beat laterally and a profound right ventricular heave. On lung auscultation, he has bilateral basal crackles. X-ray of the chest reveals gross cardiomegaly. Heart ultrasound shows mitral valve prolapse. Finally, ECG shows a prolonged and widened QRS complex with a short PR interval. Doctors establish the diagnosis of a right bundle branch block with a dominant R wave in V1. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Heart failure

      Correct Answer: Type A Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPWS)

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a pre-excitation syndrome characterised by re-entry tachycardia that most commonly presents as a recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. ECG will show a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection...

    Correct

    • What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space indicate?

      Your Answer: ASD with pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PH) is noted in 9 to 35 % of patient with a secundum type ASD. The haemodynamic definition of PH is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of ≥25 mmHg at rest by means of right heart catheterization. In ASD, The findings on physical examination depend on the degree of left-to-right shunt and its hemodynamic consequences, which, in turn, depends on the size of the defect, the diastolic properties of both ventricles, and the relative resistance of the pulmonary and systemic circulations.Blood flow across the atrial septal defect (ASD) does not cause a murmur at the site of the shunt because no substantial pressure gradient exists between the atria. However, ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts results in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border.Patients with large left-to-right shunts often have a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve.ASD is an acyanotic lesion. Thus, the patient should be normally saturated. In the rare case of severe pulmonary arterial hypertension, atrial shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome) may occur, leading to cyanosis and clubbing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      846
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Endocardial fibroelastosis

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Persistent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective cardiac surgery. There is no respiratory distress, but cyanosis is present with oxygen saturations at 80s. There is a midline sternotomy scar. On auscultation there is a 4/6 ejection systolic murmur on the upper left sternal edge and a sternal heave is felt on palpation. Which of the following is the child most likely suffering from and what is the likely treatment?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery band

      Explanation:

      The murmur and thrill indicate a right outflow tract murmur, coupled with the right ventricular heave suggests right ventricular hypertrophy. The VSD would not have been amenable to surgery due to the child’s size/weight and so instead would have been palliated with a PA band. As the child grows, this band progressively restricts pulmonary blood flow until the left to right shunt has reversed. Then it is time for the band to be removed and the VSD to be closed.Pulmonary atresia is a cyanotic condition, which may be palliated with an arterial duct stent. This answer is incorrect as the stent placement would not require a midline sternotomy and would give a continuous machinery type murmur. Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation is incorrect. The murmur, thrill, and heave all match a pulmonary stenosis but in the absence of an additional shunt lesion the child would not be cyanosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

      Your Answer: 100% penetrance

      Correct Answer: Normal IQ

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome is one of the most common microdeletion syndromes, resulting from 22q11 deletion. 10% of the cases can be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, while 90% are sporadic. The syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of both T and B-cell lines along with hearing loss, 20-fold increased lifetime chances of developing schizophrenia, renal abnormalities, congenital heart defects, and a borderline or low IQ. Distinctive facial features include micrognathia, long face, short philtrum, cleft palate, and small teeth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Left atrial thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Juvenile chronic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?

      Your Answer: Persistent arterial duct

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?

      Your Answer: Atrial Flutter

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta?

      Your Answer: 70% of patients have bicuspid aortic valves

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases Occurring in about 1 in 2,500 births. It is characterized by a congenitally narrowed proximal thoracic aorta. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve in 70% of the cases and berry aneurysms in 10% of the cases. Coarctation of the aorta is commonly found in association with Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, and Patau syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with no murmurs, 3 cm liver edge, and poor femoral pulses. She is acidotic with elevated lactate. Mum did not attend the antenatal screening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mid-aortic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta may be defined as a constricted aortic segment that comprises localized medial thickening, with some infolding of the medial and superimposed neointimal tissue.The presence of associated defects and aortic arch anomalies, the extent of patency of the ductus arteriosus, the rapidity of the process of closure of the ductus arteriosus, and the level of pulmonary vascular resistance determine the timing of clinical presentation and the severity of symptoms. Young patients may present in the first few weeks of life with poor feeding, tachypnoea, and lethargy and progress to overt CHF and shock. These patients may have appeared well before hospital discharge, and deterioration coincides with closure of the patent ductus arteriosus. Presentation may be abrupt and acute with ductal closure.Neonates may be found to have tachypnoea, tachycardia, and increased work of breathing and may even be moribund with shock. Keys to the diagnosis include blood pressure (BP) discrepancies between the upper and lower extremities and reduced or absent lower extremity pulses to palpation. However, when the infant is in severe heart failure, all pulses are diminished.The murmur associated with coarctation of the aorta may be nonspecific yet is usually a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area and under the left scapula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer: Ellis van Creveld Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen? ...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen?

      Your Answer: Complete atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart diseases such as complete atrioventricular septal defects are most likely to cause large left to right shunts leading to faltering growth due to chronic severe hypoxia, pulmonary oedema, and feeding problems. Isolated atrial septal defects or ventricular septal defects result in relatively smaller shunts. Pulmonary stenosis and bicuspid aortic valve do not cause chronic systemic hypoxia. People with these conditions are often asymptomatic and only show some symptoms with intense physical activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left sternal edge. Which one of the following statements about examination techniques is correct?

      Your Answer: Feeling femoral pulses is mandatory

      Explanation:

      Heart murmurs are common in healthy infants, children, and adolescents. Although most are not pathologic, a murmur may be the sole manifestation of serious heart disease. Historical elements that suggest pathology include family history of sudden cardiac death or congenital heart disease, in utero exposure to certain medications or alcohol, maternal diabetes mellitus, history of rheumatic fever or Kawasaki disease, and certain genetic disorders. Physical examination should focus on vital signs| age-appropriate exercise capacity| respiratory or gastrointestinal manifestations of congestive heart failure| and a thorough cardiovascular examination, including features of the murmur, assessment of peripheral perfusion, and auscultation over the heart valves. Red flags that increase the likelihood of a pathologic murmur include a holosystolic or diastolic murmur, grade 3 or higher murmur, harsh quality, an abnormal S2, maximal murmur intensity at the upper left sternal border, a systolic click, or increased intensity when the patient stands. Electrocardiography and chest radiography rarely assist in the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation profile is normal. His CBC: Hb 11.8 TLC 7.2*10^9 Plt 286*10^9. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ITP

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP). This patient has a characteristic rash and the labs are consistent with this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?

      Your Answer: 4 minor criteria

      Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Streptococci viridans

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?...

    Incorrect

    • Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (29/29) 100%
Passmed