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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Idiopathic adrenalitis
Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia
Explanation:Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions may pre-dispose children to alopecia?
Your Answer: Precocious puberty
Correct Answer: Down's syndrome
Explanation:Alopecia areata is seen in 6-8.8% of patients with Down syndrome, but only 0.1% of patients with alopecia areata have Down syndrome. The high frequency of alopecia areata in patients with Down syndrome suggests that a genetic linkage for alopecia areata may exist on chromosome 21.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mumps orchitis
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:
Your Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst
Explanation:Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
Incorrect
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One of the main disadvantages of case control studies is:
Your Answer: They are observational
Correct Answer: The potential for recall bias
Explanation:Case control studies are observational studies which retrospectively determine whether a patient might have been exposed to a risk factor for a certain disease, as compared to a control group from the general population. They can be used for a range of outcomes as well as rare diseases. One of the biggest problems with this type of study is recall bias. Research subjects may selectively remember factors that are more predictive of the disease outcome when compared to the control group. All studies should have prior power calculations before the study commences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Infection with Streptococcus pyogenes
Correct Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infectionThe Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:fever,fatigue,swollen tonsils,headache, andsweats,sore throat,swollen lymph nodes in the neck, andsometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination following the successful administration of a median nerve block?
Your Answer: Inability to abduct and adduct the fingers
Correct Answer: Inability to abduct the thumb
Explanation:Successful administration of median nerve block can be confirmed by the inability to abduct the thumb. The median nerve supplies all the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, apart from the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the outer two fingers: so these two fingers can still be flexed. There is a sensory loss to the thumb, index, middle and half of the ring fingers. Absence of thumb abduction due to paralysis of abductor pollicis brevis is a good test for median nerve paralysis.Other options:- The radial nerve supplies the extensors – hence wrist drop does not occur in this scenario. – The ulnar nerve supplies the skin of the ulnar side of the hand. Hence anaesthesia will not affect this area. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the interossei muscles of the hand, which affect abduction and adduction of the fingers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Surfactant reduces the surface tension at the air/liquid interface in the lung. Which of the following cells produce surfactant in the lung parenchyma?
Your Answer: Alveolar macrophage
Correct Answer: Type II pneumocyte
Explanation:Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted by the epithelial type II cells into the alveolar space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?
Your Answer: Random luteinizing hormone ( LH)
Correct Answer: GnRH stimulation test
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?
Your Answer: Medulla of the kidney
Correct Answer: Medulla of the thymus
Explanation:Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering rash affecting his torso, arms, and legs. On examination, there are lesions on his mucous membranes also. On palpating the skin overlying the medial malleolus, it shears off with minimal force. What is the sign being elicited?
Your Answer: Nikolsky's sign
Explanation:The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorders, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?
Your Answer: Jaundice
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to the neonatal unit, there is a sac found covering a 3cm defect with what appears to be intestine| no liver is visible. The baby has no dysmorphic features other than a large tongue. What is the immediate danger with this baby?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21, risk of cardiac defect
Correct Answer: Beckwith-Wiedermann syndrome, risk of hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS) was first characterized by Patients having abdominal wall defects, macrosomia, macroglossia, and enlarged adrenal glands. Since then, the clinical presentation has expanded to recognize hemihypertrophy/lateralized overgrowth, hyperinsulinism, omphalocele, and organomegaly as classic features of BWS.About 50% of children with BWS have hypoglycaemia and therefore patients with diagnosed BWS should be evaluated for hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia in most BWS new-borns generally resolves within the first few days of life. However, in about 5% of patients that have hyperinsulinism, the severe prolonged hypoglycaemia requires escalated therapy ranging for medication (diazoxide) to partial pancreatectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival rates associated with this condition. Which of the following statistical methods is employed to predict the survival rates?
Your Answer: Regression analysis
Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Kaplan–Meier estimator, also known as the product limit estimator, is a non-parametric statistic used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is often used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints of pain in his legs when walking. Musculoskeletal and neurological examination is unremarkable. The blood pressure in his right arm is 160/90. His femoral pulses are present but were harder to feel than normal. On auscultation, you find an ejection click at the base, accompanied by an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge, but audible also at the mid-left sternal edge and back. His ECG has findings suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy, but his chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Coarctation of Aorta (CoA).Infants with CoA present within the first few weeks of life with signs suggestive of congestive cardiac failure and general circulatory shock. In these patients, the aorta is supplied by the right ventricle, via the ductus arteriosus. Pathophysiology:When the left ventricle supplies the aorta via the aortic isthmus, children are usually asymptomatic or may present with occasional complaints of leg pain. Associated cardiac anomalies are uncommon but for a bicuspid aortic valve, which is present in approximately 50% of cases. Good collateral circulation usually develops in these patients, which in the long term, causes notching of ribs. Clinical Presentation:Clinically, there may be hypertension in the upper limbs (or higher BP readings than in the lower limbs), and leg pulses are absent, or weak and delayed. A systolic click and aortic ejection systolic murmur are heard, caused by the bicuspid aortic valve. Management:The primary medical management is to treat hypertension. After stabilization, the patient can undergo definitive surgical repair. Transcatheter balloon angioplasty of the coarctation is controversial, but ballooning +/- stenting of re-coarctation following surgery is commonly performed.Systemic hypertension may occur following repair, even in the absence of re-coarctation necessitating the re-initiation/continuation of antihypertensive therapy in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?
Your Answer: Hyperlipidaemia
Correct Answer: Deranged liver function tests
Explanation:Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 17
Correct
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All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis except?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Prednisone is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis if there is no initial response to the anticholinesterase medications. Pyridostigmine can make the symptoms of myasthenia gravis worse if used in the initial stages of treatment.Â
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the hospital. The parents are now asking for advice on how to manage future occurrences at home. What do you advise?
Your Answer: Heimlich manoeuvre
Correct Answer: Turn the child on his back and give thumps
Explanation:Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Twice daily (30% short/70% intermediate acting): at 2/3 of dose am and 1/3 of dose pm
Correct Answer: Basal–bolus regimen
Explanation:In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?
Your Answer: Target cells
Explanation:The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl with acute Guillain-Barre syndrome has developed worsening weakness of her proximal muscles. Which of the following tests should be used to monitor her respiratory function?
Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate
Correct Answer: Vital capacity
Explanation:One-third of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome suffer from diaphragm weakness which can lead to further respiratory complications if there is involvement of the tongue, palate, and neck muscles. Forced vital capacity (FVC) is the best way to monitor respiratory muscle function by assessing it repeatedly. Admission for ITU is suggested when FVC is below 20ml/kg and intubation recommended when FVC is 15ml/kg or below. FVC is used in any neurological disorders wherein the respiratory muscles are affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Turner’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Explanation:Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: It contains an area known as white pulp
Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus
Explanation:The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of following statements with regards to the developmental problems found in Fragile X syndrome is the most accurate?
Your Answer: Around one third of children with FXS meet diagnostic criteria for autistic spectrum disorder
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic syndrome associated with neuro-developmental problems such as learning disabilities and cognitive impairment, with many affected children having mild to moderate intellectual disability. About a third of children have features of autism spectrum disorder and ADHD which affects their communication skills and social interactions. As such, affected individuals usually have delayed speech development and poor nonverbal skills such as gaze aversion. Symptoms tend to worsen with age into adolescence as the demands on their intellect becomes greater. Pre-mutation carriers, who posses smaller genetic repeat expansions, have been found to be associated with some neurodevelopment and other medical problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Proteinuria is NOT a recognized feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Correct Answer: Landau-Kleffner syndrome
Explanation:Proteinuria refers to an increased amount of protein excretion in urine, which should be greater than 100mg/m2 per day on a single spot urine collection. The limit is even more relaxed for infants and neonates. Proteinuria is a prominent manifestation of cystinosis, acute tubular necrosis, Fanconi syndrome, and celiac disease. Landau-Kleffner syndrome is a rare childhood convulsive disorder, associated with acquired aphasia and auditory verbal agnosia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back. What is the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:This clinical picture is typical of chickenpox, which is treated with antihistamines and calamine lotion. In the case of fever, acetaminophen can be used. Generally treatment is purely for symptomatic relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A child with a history of developmental delay presents with plaque-like lesions in the retina. The doctor suspects they are probably hamartomas. Which of the following is the most probable association?
Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 2
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis, an autosomal dominant disorder, may present with a variety of symptoms, including seizures, developmental delay, behavioural problems, skin abnormalities, and lung and kidney disease. Hamartomas are often associated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy with a history of pharyngitis 10 days ago, presents with periorbital oedema. You perform a urine dipstick test which shows 1+ for protein and 3+ for blood. Family history is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Wilms tumour
Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The child has a history of pharyngitis followed 10 days later by signs of glomerulonephritis. In this particular case, it is most probably a post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis which accounts for 80% of paediatric cases of glomerulonephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Mature human milk contains how many calories?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70kcal/100ml
Explanation:Human breast milk composition changes with the progressive age of the infant. Breastmilk produced for a preterm baby often has a higher caloric content than breastmilk for a term baby. After the production of colostrum in the first days of life, the milk continues to mature. by week 4-6 milk can be considered fully mature. The average calories found in mature breastmilk are about 70kcal/100ml
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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