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Question 1
Incorrect
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A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fanconi syndrome
Correct Answer: Fanconi anaemia
Explanation:Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following a collapse and abnormal movements earlier at school today. The episode occurred when she was walking to her next lesson with her friends. Suddenly she told her friends that she felt scared and complained that her vision had become blurry. She was helped to a chair where she sat for 15 minutes speaking incoherently before collapsing to the floor. Her friends observed irregular jerking movements of her right leg and left arm. The movement continued for about 15 minutes after which she was able to sit up unsupported but could not speak for about 20 minutes. There was also bleeding from the tongue which she had bit during the episode. She had a similar episode yesterday at home while on a video call with her mother. Her father narrated that she suddenly dropped the phone, and her eyes began to roll up. She initially remained standing but fell to the floor after a minute. He noticed irregular movements of both her legs, and her eyes were tightly shut. The movements ended after 2 minutes after which she became responsive to questions, but her eyes remained closed. She was brought later in the day, and was discharged after routine investigations. Jamila is a GCSE candidate preparing for her mock examinations, and currently lives with her father as her mother works abroad. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jamila’s condition?
Your Answer: Non-epileptic attack disorder
Explanation:Non Epileptic attack disorder, also known as psychogenic non epileptic seizures, is a condition characterised by episodes of abnormal movement and behaviours that resemble seizures , but are not caused by electrical activity changes in the brain. It is believed that the disorder is caused by the brain’s response to overwhelming or stressful situations. In Jamila’s case, triggering conditions for her episodes may have been the absence of her mother, and the stress of her upcoming examinations. A diagnosis of generalised epilepsy is unlikely because this would require abnormal movement in all 4 limbs during an episode and a longer period of semi consciousness after. Cataplexy can also be ruled out as it does not involve a loss of consciousness which we see in Jamila’s case. Vasovagal syncope does not correspond with the history as there was no evidence of simultaneous collapse and responsiveness coupled with colour change and near spontaneous recovery when supine. A complex partial seizure may be possible in Jamila’s case, however the history of long duration, her eyes being tightly shut and the differences in presentation between the two episodes makes it less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 3
Correct
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A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?
Your Answer: 4 hours
Explanation:The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by which of the following tests?
Your Answer: US
Explanation:Blood tests do not help in the diagnosis of jaundice except of course by telling the level of jaundice (bilirubin) and providing some corroborative evidence such as autoantibodies, tumour markers or viral titres in the case of hepatitis. Classifying causes of jaundice on the basis of ultrasound provides a quick and easy schema for diagnosing jaundice which is applicable in primary care as well as hospital based practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea.Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?
Your Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months| progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?
Your Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics
Explanation:Cleansing and debridement is paramount in dealing with tetanus-prone wounds (severe crushing injuries, piercing wounds, blisters and burns are outstanding examples, particularly if contaminated with dirt, grass or other debris).Prophylaxis then is relatively easy in persons who have been actively immunized by toxoid injections. For them, a “booster” injection is indicated. There is experimental evidence that antibiotics of the tetracycline group, given soon after injury, may have prophylactic effect against tetanus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet gun. He hides the injury for over a week before he is taken to his doctor. CT scan shows that the pellet is lodged in his liver's left lobe. His abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination and he seems well. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Extract the pellet using interventional radiology techniques
Correct Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later
Explanation:Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks laterAir weapon injuries in children should be managed in the same way as any low velocity gun shot injury. Subcutaneous pellets are best removed. Urgent specialist referral is indicated for cranial, ocular, chest, abdominal, or vascular injuries as they may require emergency surgery. Cardiac injuries may be rapidly fatal. Penetrating abdominal injuries involving hollow viscera or major blood vessels need prompt exploration and repair. Intracranial air weapon pellets should be removed if possible. A pellet in lung parenchyma or muscle may be safely left in situ but there is a risk of infection. A pellet that has penetrated a joint or is associated with a fracture requires skilled orthopaedic management. A pellet lodged near a major blood vessel or nerve should ideally be removed. The possibility of intravascular embolism must be considered if the pellet is absent from a suspected entry site and there is no exit wound| numerous examples of arterial and venous embolism of an air weapon pellet in children have been described.In this case, the child seems well so there is no need to operate. He should be reviewed several weeks later.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Correct Answer: Myxoedema
Explanation:Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism?
Your Answer: Acromegaly
Correct Answer: Delayed puberty
Explanation:Hirsutism is the growth of excess hair in androgen dependent areas or in a male pattern. The phenomenon is found in conditions where there is abnormal androgen action. This can occur in adrenal lesions including congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome, or a failure to produce adequate female hormones such as PCOS and premature menopause. Similarly, drugs such as anabolic steroids, danazol and minoxidil can also cause hirsutism. Delayed puberty is unlikely to cause hirsutism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially appears to be stable. However, over the next 24 hours, he develops worsening neurological function.Which one of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences.Loss of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is a pathophysiologic feature of germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Prematurity itself results in derangements in cerebral autoregulation. In some patients, a history of additional events that result in loss of autoregulation can be obtained. Furthermore, events that can result in beat-to-beat variability of cerebral blood flow may be identified in some patients.There may be no symptoms. The most common symptoms seen in premature infants include:- Breathing pauses (apnoea)- Changes in blood pressure and heart rate- Decreased muscle tone- Decreased reflexes- Excessive sleep- Lethargy- Weak suck- Seizures and other abnormal movements
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 14-month-old boy is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of vomiting, abdominal pain, and rectal bleeding. On examination, he is found to be dehydrated, and a palpable abdominal mass was felt. A Meckel's scan proved to be negative. However, the ultrasound scan did reveal a target sign.What is the most probable cause of the patient's complaints?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms is intussusception.Intussusception is a condition in which part of the intestine folds into the section next to it. It most commonly involves the small bowel and rarely the large bowel. Intussusception doesn’t usually require surgical correction. 80% of cases can be both confirmed and reduced using barium, water-soluble or air-contrast enema. However, up to 10% of cases can experience recurrence within 24 hours after reduction, warranting close monitoring during this period.Other options:- Enteric duplication: a duplication cyst could give all these features, although it may contain sufficient gastric epithelium to produce a positive Meckel’s scan. However, this is comparatively rare. – Meckel’s diverticulum: Scintigraphy has poor sensitivity making the possibility of a bleed from a Meckel’s diverticulum a genuine differential for this patient. However, considering the presence of features of bowel obstruction in the patient, a Meckel’s diverticulum bleeding and obstructing at the same time would be a rare phenomenon. – Midgut volvulus: It is also a plausible differential in this patient. However, for the given age group, a midgut volvulus is relatively uncommon compared to intussusception. – Acute appendicitis: While it is true that appendicitis can present acutely with a palpable mass and bowel obstruction, it rarely presents with rectal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 12
Correct
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An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. This infection is most likely caused by which of the following organism?
Your Answer: Treponema pallidum
Explanation:Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?
Your Answer: Because the mite can jump, infection rates are high in households and nurseries
Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic
Explanation:The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Optic neuropathy
Correct Answer: Iritis
Explanation:The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat and bleeding gums. He has also noticed a rash on his legs. The coryzal symptoms started 3 weeks ago before which he was fit and well. He is currently not taking any medication and denies smoking, alcohol and using other illicit drugs. Examination reveals a pale child with bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages, erythematous throat and some petechiae on his legs. there are no sign of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. investigations are as follows: Hb8.9 g/dlMCV: 110 flWBC: 2 x 109/lNeutrophils: 0.3 x 109/lLymphocytes:1.5 x 109/lPLT: 13 x 109/lReticulocytes: 30 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/l)Coagulation screen: normal. Bone marrow: hypoplastic. A urine dipstick reveals trace of blood in the urine. What is the patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia
Explanation:Aplastic anaemia causes a deficiency of all blood cell types: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It is more frequent in people in their teens and twenties, but is also common among the elderly. It can be caused by heredity, immune disease, or exposure to chemicals, drugs, or radiation. However, in about one-half of cases, the cause is unknown.The definitive diagnosis is by bone marrow biopsy| normal bone marrow has 30–70% blood stem cells, but in aplastic anaemia, these cells are mostly gone and replaced by fat.First-line treatment for aplastic anaemia consists of immunosuppressive drugs, typically either anti-lymphocyte globulin or anti-thymocyte globulin, combined with corticosteroids, chemotherapy and ciclosporin. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is also used, especially for patients under 30 years of age with a related matched marrow donor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which is true regarding XYY syndrome?
Your Answer: Affected individuals are usually asymptomatic
Explanation:47,XYY syndrome is characterized by an extra copy of the Y chromosome in each of a male’s cells. Although many males with this condition are taller than average, the chromosomal change sometimes causes no unusual physical features. Most males with 47,XYY syndrome have normal production of the male sex hormone testosterone and normal sexual development, and they are usually able to father children.47,XYY syndrome is associated with an increased risk of learning disabilities and delayed development of speech and language skills. Affected boys can have delayed development of motor skills or hypotonia.Other signs and symptoms of this condition include hand tremors or other involuntary movements (motor tics), seizures, and asthma. Males with 47,XYY syndrome have an increased risk of behavioural, social, and emotional difficulties compared with their unaffected peers. These problems include attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)| depression| anxiety| and autism spectrum disorder.Physical features related to 47,XYY syndrome can include increased belly fat, macrocephaly, macrodontia, flat feet (pes planus), fifth fingers that curve inward (clinodactyly), widely spaced eyes (ocular hypertelorism), and scoliosis. These characteristics vary widely among affected boys and men.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation. Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?
Your Answer: Efavirenz
Explanation:The antiretroviral agent for the side effects mentioned is most probably, efavirenz.Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and the most likely cause of new-onset psychiatric symptoms in someone taking HAART. In this scenario the patient had no pre-existing mental health problems, as other antiretrovirals can cause depression and suicidal ideation in those who have a past psychiatric history. Symptoms usually subside after a few weeks of treatment.Other options:- Emtricitabine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and is also not known to cause psychiatric side effects. The most common side effects of Emtricitabine are rash and darkening of the palms or soles.- Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause insomnia, but does not commonly cause other psychiatric symptoms.- Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause depression. However, this is more common in those with a history of mental health problems.- Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The most common side effect of Tenofovir is gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to cause psychiatric side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 18
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally noticed protein in the urine on two occasions when the child came to see him after school. The boy is otherwise healthy and has no signs of oedema or recent infection. The urine dipstick you obtain is negative for protein when you review him in the early morning hours. What is the most likely cause of proteinuria in this child?
Your Answer: Orthostatic proteinuria
Explanation:Based on the clinical presentation, the child probably has orthostatic proteinuria.Orthostatic proteinuria occurs when the kidneys can conserve urine when the patient is recumbent, such as sleeping at night, but leak protein with standing or in exercise. This results in early morning urine being negative for protein but late in the day urine being positive. It is mostly seen in tall thin adolescents and is benign. Other options:- Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary condition associated with haematuria and deafness. – Urinary tract infections can cause proteinuria, but leucocyte esterase and nitrites would also be expected in a child of this age. – Nephritic syndrome can be associated with proteinuria, but haematuria would also be present. – In nephrotic syndrome, proteinuria would be present on all occasions and associated with oedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Salmonella sp
Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with left-sided hemi-sensory loss and ipsilateral sensory inattention. The doctor suspects a space-occupying lesion.Where is this likely to be?
Your Answer: Right temporal lobe
Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:Damage to the left parietal lobe can result in what is called Gerstmann’s Syndrome. It includes right-left confusion, difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia). It can also produce disorders of language (aphasia) and the inability to perceive objects normally (agnosia).Damage to the right parietal lobe can result in neglecting part of the body or space (contralateral neglect), which can impair many self-care skills such as dressing and washing. Right side damage can also cause difficulty in making things (constructional apraxia), denial of deficits (anosognosia) and drawing ability.Bi-lateral damage (large lesions to both sides) can cause Balint’s Syndrome, a visual attention and motor syndrome. This is characterized by the inability to voluntarily control the gaze (ocular apraxia), inability to integrate components of a visual scene (simultanagnosia), and the inability to accurately reach for an object with visual guidance (optic ataxia)Special deficits (primarily to memory and personality) can occur if there is damage to the area between the parietal and temporal lobes.Left parietal-temporal lesions can affect verbal memory and the ability to recall strings of digits. The right parietal-temporal lobe is concerned with non-verbal memory.Right parietal-temporal lesions can produce significant changes in personality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?
Your Answer: Progestogen implant
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?
Your Answer: USG
Correct Answer: Exploratory surgery
Explanation:The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?
Your Answer: 10 years
Correct Answer: 12 years
Explanation:Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Toe walking is NOT a feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Prematurity
Correct Answer: Waardenburg syndrome
Explanation:Toe walking refers to a pattern of walking in which the infants walk on the balls of their feet, without putting the heel of the feet on the ground. It is considered normal under the age of 2 years, but if it continues beyond that, it can signify some underlying pathology. The diseases that can be associated with toe walking include unilateral hip dislocation, Spinal tumours, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, prematurity, and cerebral palsy. Waardenburg’s syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder, causing sensorineural deafness, and heterochromatic irises. Toe walking is not a feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 28
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin pump. There has been better glycaemic control and he now subsequently enjoys a healthy, active lifestyle. During the consultation, he seems to acknowledge the risks of missing out his dose and says that he is comfortable with his new pump. he mentions that he changes his site after every 4 days. However, a random blood sugar analysis reveals it to be 22.3 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the raised RBS level?
Your Answer: Site change is overdue
Explanation:Insertion sites and sensor sites should be rotated each time the infusion set or glucose sensor is changed. This keeps the tissue healthy and allows previous sites to completely heal before reusing them. Change infusion set every 2 to 3 days to help prevent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and feet, shortly after being unconscious for a while. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infantile spasm
Explanation:Infantile spasm belongs to the spectrum of seizure disorders. Infantile spasm manifests itself with loss of consciousness and jerky movements. The peak age of onset is between 4 and 6 months. Approximately 90% of infantile spasms begin before 12 months of age. It is rare for infantile spasms to begin during the first 2 weeks of life or after 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.Investigations were as follows:Hb 13.1 g/dlWCC 8.6 x109/lPLT 201 x109/lNa+ 139 mmol/lK+ 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine 110 µmol/l17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normalPelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess. Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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