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Question 1
Incorrect
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A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is on the operating table undergoing an appendicectomy.Having incised the external oblique aponeurosis and spilt the underlying muscle along the line of its fibres, the surgeon encounters a tough fibrous structure at the medial edge of the wound.Which of the following will the surgeon encounter on entry into this structure?
Your Answer: Transversus abdominis
Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis
Explanation:The structure in question is the rectus sheath. This sheath encloses the rectus abdominis muscle and thus, will be encountered by the surgeon.Note:- Midline incision: It is the most common approach to the abdomen. The structures divided during this incision are linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum ( with care taken to avoid the falciform ligament above the umbilicus).The bladder can be accessed via an extraperitoneal approach through the space of Retzius.- Paramedian incision: It is an incision that is made parallel to the midline. The structures divided or retracted are anterior rectus sheath, rectus (retracted), posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.- Battle incision: It is similar to a paramedian but the rectus is displaced medially (and thus denervated).- Kocher’s incision: It is an incision made under the right subcostal margin, e.g. cholecystectomy (open).- Lanz incision: It is an incision in the right iliac fossa, e.g. appendicectomy.Gridiron incision: It is an oblique incision centred over the McBurney’s point – usually used for appendicectomy (less cosmetically acceptable than LanzPfannenstiel’s incision: It is a transverse suprapubic incision, primarily used to access pelvic organs.McEvedy’s incision: It is a groin incision used for emergency repair strangulated femoral hernia.Rutherford Morrison incision: It provides an extraperitoneal approach to left or right lower quadrants. It provides excellent access to iliac vessels and is the approach of choice for first-time renal transplantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign body, which had resulted in the child having difficulty breathing. The best possible site for the incision would be?
Your Answer: Cricoid cartilage
Explanation:Cricothyroidectomy is done in life threatening condition, where an incision is made in cricothyroid membrane to establish a patent airway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Correct
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An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Iritis
Explanation:The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer: Inverted T waves
Correct Answer: Tall T waves
Explanation:On electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with hypercalcemia include:Tall T wavesReduced QTProlonged and depressed STArrhythmiaOther electrolyte disturbances:Hypokalaemia:Flat T wavesST depressionU waveAtrial and ventricular ectopicsVF and VTHyperkalaemia:Tall T wavesST- changesReduced QT intervalIncreased PR intervalSmaller or absent P wavesWidened QRS, broadening to VFHypocalcaemia:Prolonged QTProlonged STFlat or absent T wavesU waves
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents with a one-day history of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. Her inflammatory markers are within normal limits. Her mother informs the physician that the girl had an operation at three days of age for malrotation. An abdominal X-ray shows several severely dilated loops of small bowel with no gas in the rectum. What is the probable diagnosis and the appropriate initial management?
Your Answer: Recurrent volvulus, urgent laparotomy required
Correct Answer: Intra-abdominal adhesions, naso-gastric decompression and intravenous fluids
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s presentation would be intra-abdominal adhesions, and the most appropriate management for this patient would be nasogastric decompression and intravenous fluids.Malrotation typically presents in the first month of life with bilious vomiting. There is a lifetime risk of intra-abdominal adhesions. This presents with bilious vomiting and dilated bowel loops on plain abdominal film. 2/3 of adhesional obstructions resolve by conservative management with nasogastric decompression and intravenous fluids. If this fails to resolve after 24-48 hours or if there are signs of peritonism, a laparotomy is indicated.Other options:- Recurrent volvulus, urgent laparotomy required: The child is now 8-years-old and recurrent volvulus is unlikely as bowel should be fixed by intra-abdominal adhesions.- Intra-abdominal adhesions, surgery for division of intra-abdominal adhesions: Although surgery may be required, the majority of adhesional obstructive cases respond to conservative management.- Gastroenteritis with incompetent pylorus, intravenous fluids: While it is true that patients with malrotation can have bilious vomiting in gastroenteritis, the abdominal X-ray is suggestive of obstruction.- Likely sepsis with bilious vomiting, intravenous fluids and antibiotics: While a septic ileus can give bilious vomiting, this patient has no inflammatory markers suggestive of sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination he has ambiguous genitalia. The lab results are as follows: Na: 125mmol/L, K: 6mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) comprises a group of autosomal recessive defects in enzymes that are responsible for cortisol, aldosterone, and, in very rare cases, androgen synthesis. All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia. The exact clinical manifestations depend on the enzyme defect. The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, and virilization (in the female genotype), and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females). It is further characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone confirm the diagnosis of 21β-hydroxylase deficiency. Treatment of CAH involves lifelong glucocorticoid replacement therapy. Patients with a 21β-hydroxylase deficiency also require mineralocorticoid replacement with fludrocortisone. Complications of CAH include severe hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency, and/or a failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:
Your Answer: Foregut
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?
Your Answer: 3-4 years
Correct Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years
Explanation:Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots?
Your Answer: Should be used for numerical and not categorical outcomes
Correct Answer: Show distributionally outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliers
Explanation:Box plots can be used to display numerical outcomes and give valid summaries (median and interquartile range or IQR) for any distributional form that the outcomes might take. Additionally, they show outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliersOther options:- The box itself represents the interquartile range, with the two whiskers representing the variability outside the upper and lower quartiles.- Variability is represented with whiskers and feathers are used in fan charts.They are not as informative as showing the actual values but can be used to make comparisons of medians and IQRs between subgroups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?
Your Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound
Explanation:Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border| this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk| S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?
Your Answer: Inform the parents that the chromosomes will need to be done and after this result they will be informed what gender the child should be reared as
Correct Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned
Explanation:Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis
Explanation:The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally
Explanation:Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye. Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopiaExamination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A healthy male who has a brother with cystic fibrosis. His wife, who has no family history of cystic fibrosis, wants to know their chance of having a child affected by cystic fibrosis.What is the best estimate of the risk if the population carrier rate of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 25?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.This means that to have CF, a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene in each cell. People with CF inherit one mutated copy of the gene from each parent, who is referred to as a carrier.CF carriers can pass their copy of the CFTR gene mutation to their children. Each time two CF carriers have a child together, the chances are: 25 percent (1 in 4) the child will have CF50 percent (1 in 2) the child will be a carrier but will not have CF25 percent (1 in 4) the child will not be a carrier of the gene and will not have CFThis male’s parents are obligate carrier because he has a sibling with CFSo the chances he is a carrier too are 2 in 3The risk of having an affected child is the chance of both himself and his partner being carriers: (2/3 × 1/25 = 2/75) × 1/4 = 1/150.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst
Explanation:Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall health is normal and clinical examination reveals no discharge, hearing loss or fever. Just by looking at it, the pinna of the ear looks swollen and red. Also, pushing the tragus leads to pain. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous external auditory canal and an otherwise healthy tympanic membrane. The bony external canal courses through which bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal bone
Explanation:The external auditory canal (EAC) extends from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Its lateral portion is fibrocartilaginous and its medial portion is bony. Its bony portion is formed by the tympanic portion of the temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15-20%
Explanation:Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right upper zone
Explanation:The azygos lobe is usually well seen on the chest radiograph, where it is limited by the azygos fissure, a fine, convex (relative to the mediastinum) line that crosses the apex of the right lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age
Explanation:A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Copy a cross
Explanation:4-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalEnjoys doing new things Plays “Mom” and “Dad” Is more and more creative with make-believe play Would rather play with other children than by himself Cooperates with other children Often can’t tell what’s real and what’s make-believe Talks about what she likes and what she is interested in Language/CommunicationKnows some basic rules of grammar, such as correctly using “he” and “she” Sings a song or says a poem from memory such as the “Itsy Bitsy Spider” or the “Wheels on the Bus” Tells stories Can say first and last nameCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Names some colours and some numbers Understands the idea of counting Starts to understand time Remembers parts of a story Understands the idea of “same” and “different” Draws a person with 2 to 4 body parts Uses scissors Starts to copy some capital letters Plays board or card games Tells you what he thinks is going to happen next in a book Movement/Physical DevelopmentHops and stands on one foot up to 2 seconds Catches a bounced ball most of the time Pours, cuts with supervision, and mashes own food
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version
Explanation:The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn’t passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average
Explanation:The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following pathological criteria carries the greatest prognostic weight for malignant melanoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breslow thickness
Explanation:Breslow thickness is measured from the top of the granular layer of the epidermis (or, if the surface is ulcerated, from the base of the ulcer) to the deepest invasive cell across the broad base of the tumour (dermal/subcutaneous) as described by Breslow.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cmMarsden J et al Revised UK guidelines for management of Melanoma. Br J Dermatol 2010 163:238-256.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 200 beats/min and QRS duration of 80ms. The tachycardia spontaneously resolves and presents in sinus rhythm. The PR interval is 60 ms and QRS duration is 120 ms, there is a positive delta wave in V1. Regarding the boy's tachycardia, which of the following statements holds true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil is contraindicated
Explanation:Although WPW syndrome is a type of supraventricular re-entrant tachycardia, CCBs are contraindicated in its management. This is because CCBs depress AVN conduction| the current then passes through the accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) instead, causing ventricular tachycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She also complains of irregular and sporadic periods. During the examination, you notice behavioural traits that suggest a deterioration in peripheral vision. An eye exam confirms bitemporal hemianopia. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain reveals a large non-functional pituitary tumour. Which structure does the tumour exert pressure on to cause her visual symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic finding seen in patients with optic chiasm lesion.The pituitary gland is situated within the pituitary fossa. Just above the pituitary fossa is the optic chiasm and so any expanding masses from the pituitary gland commonly press on it, causing bitemporal hemianopia.Other options:- Compression of the optic nerve would not cause more severe, generalised visual loss. Also, the optic nerve is not anatomically related to the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour.- The optic tract is again not closely anatomically related with the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour. Also, damage to the optic tract on one side would cause homonymous hemianopia.- The lateral geniculate nucleus is a centre of cells in the thalamus and is unlikely to be compressed by a pituitary tumour. Its function is to convey sensory information from the optic tract to more central parts of the visual pathway.- The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located at the level of the superior colliculus in the midbrain and so may not be compressed by an enlarging pituitary tumour.Other visual defects:- Left homonymous hemianopia: It is the visual field defect to the left, due to the lesion of the right optic tract.- Homonymous quadrantanopias are seen in parietal (inferior homonymous quadrantopia) and temporal lobe lesions (superior homonymous quadrantopia). Mnemonic: PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, and conversely, an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.Incongruous defects suggest an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest optic radiation or occipital cortex lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat when ill
Explanation:At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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