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Question 1
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?
Your Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet
Explanation:Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The neurological examination is unremarkable except for seven brown macules on the skin that vary in diameter from 1 to 2 cm. Clinical examination reveals several freckles in the axilla and the inguinal region. What is the most probably underlying condition?
Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma
Explanation:Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma is a benign slow-growing tumour. The clinical picture of the child suggests neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), with cafe-au-lait spots and axillary and inguinal freckling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?
Your Answer: Congenital ptosis
Explanation:A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Correct
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A dental surgeon infiltrates local anaesthetic at the mandibular foramen to carry out a block of the right inferior alveolar nerve. Which of the following might occur as a result of the procedure?
Your Answer: Numbness of the lower teeth on the right side
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve supplies all the teeth of the respective hemimandible. It transverses the inferior alveolar canal and is a branch of the trigeminal nerve’s mandibular division. Therefore, in this case, the teeth of the right hemimandible will be numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go to school. According to him, he was unhappy at the school. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?
Your Answer: Clinical psychologist
Explanation:The child’s problem should be assessed properly to find the reason for unhappiness at the school. There can be many reasons such as bullying at school, abuse etc. A clinical psychologist should assess this child to take the necessary details and plan the further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?
Your Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily| the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: US abdomen
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?
Your Answer: Posterior urethral valves
Explanation:Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 10
Correct
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An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow crusted lesions. Her mother complains that the child has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea and recurrent skin infections. She is non-febrile, but her growth chart is highly suggestive of failure to thrive.The constellation of symptoms present in this child suggests which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Leiner's disease
Explanation:Based on the patient’s presentation, he’s probably suffering from Leiner’s diseaseLeiner’s disease is a severe generalised form of seborrhoeic dermatitis. It is also associated with recurrent diarrhoea, recurrent skin and internal infections, and failure to thrive.Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common and self-limiting condition in childhood. Lesions affect the scalp (cradle cap), and sometimes the ear, nose, and eyebrows. It is characterised by greasy yellow or yellow-brown scales.There is an association with Malassezia, and the lesions are a reaction to this yeast, rather than caused by it.It is most common in the 6-12 month age group. Simple brushing with a soft bristle brush, use of oil or emollient, and ketoconazole 2% shampoo are all treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina?
Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure
Explanation:The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the head, and the muscles of mastication. The nerve is divided into three branches, the ophthalmic nerve (V1) the mandibular nerve (V2) and the maxillary nerve (V3) which all exit the skull through their respective foramina. An easy way to remember these foramina is with the following mnemonic:Standing Room Only, for V1-V3 respectivelyV1- Superior orbital FissureV2- foramen RotundumV3 foramen Ovale
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 12
Correct
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A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by a worried mother who complains that he's still unable to walk. On observing the child on the ground in a supine position, you notice the following events:First, the child rolled into prone, extended his arms and legs far apart. With the trunk weight resting on the extended arms, he pushed the body backward to shift the weight of the trunk over the extended legs.Realizing what you just observed, which among the following is the most important test you would recommend?
Your Answer: MRI brain
Correct Answer: Creatinine kinase
Explanation:The most important test recommended among the given options is the measurement of creatine kinase levels.The child presents with a gross motor developmental delay, and multiple investigations can be undertaken to confirm the diagnosis. However, the clinching point in the given clinical scenario is the presence of a positive Gower’s sign.Gower’s sign is an excellent screening test for muscle weakness, which is typically observed as an early clinical feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD).Creatinine kinase measurement is an easy and rapid test to aid in the diagnosis. Early diagnosis has significant implications not only for the child but for the family, particularly for genetic counselling. DMD is an X-linked recessive disorder, with an abnormal gene at the X chromosome at the Xp21 locus. It is a progressive degenerative muscular condition where muscle fibres are replaced by fat and fibrosis (i.e., become dystrophic).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:
Your Answer: Midgut
Explanation:From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 15
Correct
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The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 16
Correct
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A 15 month old girl from Greece presents with pallor. Her mother complains that she always seems tired. However, she has no problems with eating and has a fairly balanced diet. She was born in a rural part of the Greece and just recently moved to the UK with her parents. She hasn’t had any previous blood tests or investigations done since her birth. She has been on the second centile since her first check up in the UK, but has not lost any weight. The following are the results of her investigations. Hb 5.5g/dlMCV 62 flWBC 4.3 x 109/lPLT 430 x 109/lReticulocyte count 490 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/lFerritin 260 ng/ml (normal range: 20-300 ng/ml)Blood film: hypochromic microcytic red cells, polychromasia, fragmented red cells, nucleated red cellsWhat is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thalassaemia
Explanation:The differentials of the child’s condition are likely to include an Iron deficiency anaemia, or a hemoglobinopathy such as sickle cell disease or thalassemia based on the presentation of pallor, growth failure and easy fatiguability. While the full blood count and film present a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with reticulocytosis, the normal serum ferritin levels rule out iron deficiency anaemia. Thalassemia is to be suspected over sickle cell disease as the patient comes from the Mediterranean region known for a high incidence of thalassemia. Sickle cell anaemia also tends to present with normocytic normochromic red blood cells, with many sickled cells. Vitamin B12 deficiency and Aplastic anaemia are ruled out as they present with a macrocytic anaemia, and a decrease in white blood cells, platelets and red blood cells respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?
Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)
Explanation:Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution| the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On examination, hypopigmented macules were found on her abdomen with acne-like eruptions on her face. Also, her fingers show small periungual fibrous papules. Her parents said that she has learning disabilities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville’s disease)
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient, according to the clinical scenario provided is tuberous sclerosis. It is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterised by hamartomas located throughout the body, often prominently involving the central nervous system and skin. Two loci on chromosomes 9 and 16 have been identified to be associated with this condition. The condition has a variable expression and penetrance and is further characterised by:- Seizures (usually infantile spasms)- Developmental delay- Facial/cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)- Periungual fibromas (pink projections from the nail folds)- Shagreen patches (leathery thickenings of the skin usually on the back) – Ash leaf macules (areas of depigmentation that become visible under a Wood’s light)- Fundoscopy may reveal white streaks along the fundal vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk is preserved and she is playing actively and well without any other disturbances. What is the most probable cause of jaundice?
Your Answer: Breast milk Jaundice
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is thought to be associated with one or more abnormalities in the maternal milk itself. Breast milk jaundice syndrome generally needs no therapy if serum bilirubin concentrations remain below 270 mmol/l in healthy full-term infants. When the serum bilirubin concentration is above 270 mmol/l and rising, temporary interruption of breastfeeding may be indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion
Explanation:Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 21
Correct
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A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:
Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Explanation:Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Correct
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A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?
Your Answer: Reassure
Explanation:A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship.What is the best treatment option for her?
Your Answer: Adequate diet and observation
Explanation:Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 25
Correct
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A 5 week old boy presents for developmental assessment. Clinical examination reveals a bluish, well-circumscribed lesion located on the bridge of the nose. It measures 5 mm in diameter and feels firm to the touch. Parents admit that the mass was not present at birth. They have noticed that the lesion gets bigger when the baby cries and then it gets back to its initial size. Doctors suspect a capillary haemangioma. What would you advise the parents?
Your Answer: Arrange follow-up for the child in the outpatient clinic to monitor the growth of the lesion over the coming weeks
Explanation:Capillary haemangiomas (strawberry naevi) are very common benign tumours that may appear in infancy. This particular case requires a close follow-up to monitor the naevus’ size and make sure it doesn’t expand or gets bigger, affecting the baby’s visual field.It is more common in preterm babies and girls are 3x more commonly affected than boys. It presents at birth in 30%, and is a focal and solitary in 80% of cases, most commonly found on the head and neck (60%), followed by the trunk (25%) and extremities (15%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following cranial nerve reflexes is most likely to be affected if there is a lesion in the vagus nerve?
Your Answer: Gag reflex
Explanation:Vagus nerve lesions will affect the gag reflex since the pharyngeal muscles are innervated by it.The vagal nerve (10th cranial nerve ) is a mixed nerve carrying motor efferents and sensory afferents. The nerve conducts five distinct qualities, which are carried along general visceral efferent fibres (parasympathetic innervation of pharyngeal, laryngeal, bronchial, and gastrointestinal mucosa), general visceral afferent fibres (sensory information from the thoracic and abdominal viscera, the aortic body, aortic arch), special visceral afferent fibres (carry the taste of the epiglottal region), general somatic afferent fibres (carry sensation from the external auditory meatus, outer tympanic membrane, back of the ear, part of meninges, pharynx), and along special visceral efferent fibres, which innervate skeletal muscles of the pharynx and larynx. Skeletal muscles innervated by the vagal nerve include the cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossal, palatopharyngeus pharyngeal constrictor, and the laryngeal muscles (except cricothyroid). Innervation of these muscles is involved during speech or opening of the larynx during breathing. Efferent parasympathetic fibres control heart rate, peristalsis, and sweating. Stimulation of the efferent parasympathetic fibres lowers heart rate or blood pressure. 80–90% of the vagal fibres are afferent, only 10–20% are efferent fibresPhysical exam of the 10th cranial nerve includes eliciting the gag reflex (The gag reflex involves a brisk and brief elevation of the soft palate and bilateral contraction of pharyngeal muscles evoked by touching the posterior pharyngeal wall.), to look if the uvula is deviated from the side of the lesion, if there is failure of palate elevation upon phonation, and evaluation of speech impairment.In case of bilateral vagal nerve lesions, heart rate and breath rate may be increased. The somatic sensory function can be assessed by testing the sensibility of the external auditory meatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 27
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which is not a variation of lichen planus?
Your Answer: Sclerotic
Explanation:The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?
Your Answer: Macrophage
Explanation:The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
Basophils are not present.
The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Correct
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A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Correct
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A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision
Explanation:Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 32
Correct
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Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:
Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5
Explanation:Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 33
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with recurrent epistaxis and a history of menorrhagia. The physician suspects Von Willebrand disease and requests for blood tests. Lab investigations reveal a prolonged bleeding time and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bernard - Soulier syndrome
Explanation:Bernard- Soulier Syndrome results from a deficiency of platelet glycoprotein protein Ib, which mediates the initial interaction of platelets with the subendothelial components via the von Willebrand protein. It is a rare but severe bleeding disorder. Platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin. The platelet count is low, but, characteristically, the platelets are large, often the size of red blood cells, and may be missed on complete blood counts because most automatic counters do not count them as platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Explanation:Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 35
Correct
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Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?
Your Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis
Explanation:Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis). Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 15 year old girl presents to the clinic with a history of hard to control psoriasis. She is to start on ultraviolet B phototherapy as prescribed by her dermatologist. What is the mechanism of action of the phototherapy?
Your Answer: Induction of pyrimidine dimerization
Explanation:Psoriasis is an autoimmune dermatological condition that causes cells of the epidermal layer to rapidly develop, leading to itchy scaly plaques. Phototherapy with UV radiation has emerged as a new treatment for difficult to treat psoriasis. The therapy works by inducing epidermal cell apoptosis by DNA damage through the formation of pyrimidine dimerization, disrupting the cell cycle. This slows the rapid proliferation of cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer: Glycosuria
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising and bleeding. History reveals he wasn’t given vitamin K after birth. Blood exam is normal but with a high prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Intramuscular vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma
Correct Answer: Intravenous vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests a vitamin K deficiency haemorrhagic disease of the new-born and requires IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma. This usually presents with gastrointestinal bleeding, bleeding from the umbilical stump and bruising after 2–7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 39
Correct
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Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Correct
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A study shows that of children with asthma, 25% have a first-degree relative with asthma compared with only 10% of a sample of children without asthma. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: To interpret the results we need to know how the samples were selected
Explanation:Observational studies fall under the category of analytic study designs and are further sub-classified as observational or experimental study designs. The goal of analytic studies is to identify and evaluate causes or risk factors of diseases or health-related events. The differentiating characteristic between observational and experimental study designs is that in the latter, the presence or absence of undergoing an intervention defines the groups. By contrast, in an observational study, the investigator does not intervene and rather simply “observes” and assesses the strength of the relationship between an exposure and disease variable.Three types of observational studies include cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies. Case-control and cohort studies offer specific advantages by measuring disease occurrence and its association with an exposure by offering a temporal dimension (i.e. prospective or retrospective study design). Cross-sectional studies, also known as prevalence studies, examine the data on disease and exposure at one particular time point. Because the temporal relationship between disease occurrence and exposure cannot be established, cross-sectional studies cannot assess the cause and effect relationshipDisadvantage of Cohort study is Susceptible to selection bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 41
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful, swollen joints. Physical examination revealed petechiae on his legs. Blood investigations were found to be normal.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6 years old and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients.Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 42
Correct
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A screening test is found to have a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.Which of the following is the best answer?
Your Answer: An individual without disease is more likely to be correctly diagnosed via the test than someone with the disease
Explanation:The sensitivity of a screening test can be described in a variety of ways, typically such as sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all people with a condition of interest by those people testing positive on the test.The specificity of a test is defined in a variety of ways, typically such as specificity is the ability of a screening test to detect a true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all patients who do not have the condition of interest by those people testing negative on the test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 43
Correct
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Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21?
Your Answer: Hypotonia
Explanation:Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 in all the body cells, mostly due to non-disjunction during gametogenesis. Robertsonian translocation occurs only in about 2-4% of the cases. A variety of clinical features are found in trisomy 21 due to multi-system involvement but the hallmark is hypotonia, which is present in almost all the cases of trisomy 21. Different types of leukemias are also found in association with down’s syndrome, but they are not the hallmark. Atlantoaxial subluxation is secondary to hypotonia, which induces joint and ligament laxity. Other clinical findings are hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, Hirschsprung’s disease, and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 44
Correct
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Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: There is groin freckling and a plexiform neurofibroma
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disease caused by the mutation of the neurofibromin gene on Chromosome 17. The diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 are two or more of the following:-6 or more cafe au lait macules-2 or more cutaneous neurofibroma or one plexiform Neurofibroma-Axillary of groin freckling -Optic pathway glioma -2 or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas of the iris seen on slit lamp examination)-Bony dysplasia (such as sphenoid wing dysplasia, bowing of the long bones, or pseudarthrosis)-First degree relative with neurofibromatosis type 1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 45
Correct
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Which of the following features is not associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue in many parts of the body. Connective tissue provides strength and flexibility to structures such as bones, ligaments, muscles, blood vessels, and heart valves. The signs and symptoms of Marfan syndrome vary widely in severity, timing of onset, and rate of progression.This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder.At least 25 percent of Marfan syndrome cases result from a new mutation in the FBN1 gene. These cases occur in people with no history of the disorder in their family.The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and defects in the large blood vessel that distributes blood from the heart to the rest of the body (the aorta).Associations include:Tall statureLearning disability (50%)Lens subluxation (usually upwards)Femoral herniaHemivertebraeCardiac problems (Aortic/mitral regurgitation, aneurysms)Joint hypermobilityArachnodactyly
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In a trial for a new treatment of lung disease, a traditional regime was given to 130 patients, 30 of whom died, while the new treatment was given to 125 patients, 20 of whom died. Which of the following tools will be useful in calculating whether the above results are due to chance?
Your Answer: Correlation coefficient
Correct Answer: Chi-squared analysis
Explanation:The Chi squared test is used to find the relationship between two variables, determining whether they are not independent of each other. This test of statistical significance allows you to determine the degree of confidence with which you can accept or reject the null hypothesis. The student t test compares the significant differences in data means, while rank correlation, linear regression and the correlation coefficient all help to measure the linear relationship between variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 47
Correct
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A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 48
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 49
Correct
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A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a high likelihood of cystic fibrosis. This diagnosis is associated with a higher risk of developing which of the following?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a life-threatening disorder that causes the build up of thick mucus in the lungs, digestive tract, and other areas of the body. It is a hereditary autosomal-recessive disease caused by mutations of the CFTR gene. Cystic fibrosis eventually results in bronchiectasis which is defined as a permanent dilatation and obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 51
Correct
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Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp?
Your Answer: Cutaneous lupus erythematous
Explanation:Pityriasis amiantacea: This condition is characterized by thick, asbestos-like scales on the scalp and is often associated with psoriasis or seborrheic dermatitis.
Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis: Also known as cradle cap, this condition causes greasy, yellowish scales on the scalp.
Tinea capitis: A fungal infection of the scalp that leads to scaling, hair loss, and sometimes redness and swelling.
Cutaneous lupus erythematosus: While lupus can cause skin lesions, it is less commonly associated with a scaly scalp compared to the other conditions listed. It can cause hair loss and erythema, but significant scaling is not a primary feature.
Scalp psoriasis: This condition is well-known for causing thick, silvery scales on the scalp
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an unrelated problem ten months later, the wound site was found to be covered by a shiny dark protuberant scar tissue that projects beyond the margins of the skin incision. Which of the following best describes this skin lesion?
Your Answer: Keloid scar
Explanation:The skin lesion described is the typical presentation of a keloid scar.Keloid scars extend beyond the limits of the incision.Note:Surgical wounds are either incisional or excisional and either clean, clean-contaminated or dirty. The main stages of wound healing include:- Haemostasis:It occurs minutes to hours following injury. It is characterised by the vasospasm in adjacent vessels, platelet plug formation and generation of fibrin rich clot.- Inflammation: It occurs typically 1-5 days after the injury. Neutrophils migrate into the wound (this is often impaired in diabetes). Growth factors, including basic fibroblast growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor, are released in this phase. Fibroblasts replicate within the adjacent matrix and migrate into wound, while macrophages and fibroblasts couple matrix regeneration and clot substitution.- Regeneration: It occurs typically between 7-56 days after the injury. The factors that stimulate this phase are platelet-derived growth factor and transforming growth factor. They stimulate fibroblasts and epithelial cells. Fibroblasts produce a collagen network. Furthermore, they cause angiogenesis and thus wound healing.- Remodelling: This is considered the longest phase of the healing process and may last up to one year (or longer). During this phase, fibroblasts become differentiated (myofibroblasts), and these facilitate wound contraction. Collagen fibres are remodelled, and microvessels regress, leaving a pale scar.Clinical correlation:Abnormal scar formation:- Hypertrophic scars:It is the condition where excessive amounts of collagen are produced within a scar. Nodules may be present histologically containing randomly arranged fibrils within and parallel fibres on the surface. The tissue itself is confined to the extent of the wound itself and is usually the result of a full-thickness dermal injury. They may go on to develop contractures.- Keloid scars: This is also a condition where excessive amounts of collagen occur within a scar. A keloid scar will typically pass beyond the boundaries of the original injury. They do not contain nodules and may occur following even trivial injury. They do not regress over time and may recur following removal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including| lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 54
Correct
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An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome
Explanation:The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism?
Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Delayed puberty
Explanation:Hirsutism is the growth of excess hair in androgen dependent areas or in a male pattern. The phenomenon is found in conditions where there is abnormal androgen action. This can occur in adrenal lesions including congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome, or a failure to produce adequate female hormones such as PCOS and premature menopause. Similarly, drugs such as anabolic steroids, danazol and minoxidil can also cause hirsutism. Delayed puberty is unlikely to cause hirsutism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 56
Correct
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Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child with kernicterus?
Your Answer: Learning disability
Explanation:Bilirubin encephalopathy (BE), also known as kernicterus is a preventable complication of neonatal jaundice. Bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, geniculate bodies and cranial nerve nuclei, exerting direct neurotoxic effects and causing mass-destruction of neurons by apoptosis and necrosis.The clinical features of this diagnosis have been well described and can be divided into 3 stages:Phase 1 (first few days of life): Decreased alertness, hypotonia, and poor feeding are the typical signs. Obviously, these are quite nonspecific and could easily be indicative of a multitude of neonatal abnormalities. A high index of suspicion of possible BIND at this stage that leads to prompt intervention can halt the progression of the illness, significantly minimizing long-term sequelae. Of note, a seizure is not typically associated with acute bilirubin encephalopathy.Phase 2 (variable onset and duration): Hypertonia of the extensor muscles is a typical sign. Patients present clinically with retrocollis (backward arching of the neck), opisthotonos (backward arching of the back), or both. Infants who progress to this phase develop long-term neurologic deficits. Phase 3 (infants aged >1 wk): Hypotonia is a typical sign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 57
Correct
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An infant under investigation for persistent jaundice has a systolic murmur consistent with pulmonary valve disease. Ophthalmological assessment reveals a posterior embryotoxon.Which of the following skeletal abnormalities is to be considered in this child?
Your Answer: Butterfly vertebrae
Explanation:The combination of cholestasis, congenital heart disease (mainly affecting the pulmonary vasculature) and anterior-segment abnormalities (primarily posterior embryotoxon) suggests a diagnosis of Alagille syndrome. Clinical features:The facial features are characteristic and include a prominent forehead, deep-set eyes and a pointed chin. The most common skeletal manifestation is butterfly vertebrae, a clefting abnormality of the vertebrae most often seen in the thoracic spine and described in up to 87% of cases. Radio-ulnar synostosis and short phalanges have also been described in Alagille but less frequently. Note: Pectus excavatum is a feature of Noonan syndrome, one of the differential diagnoses of pulmonary valve disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 58
Correct
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A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?
Your Answer: Right main bronchus
Explanation:Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 59
Correct
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Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?
Your Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire
Explanation:Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 60
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.Note:Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones| the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:- Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.- Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.- Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.- Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 61
Correct
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A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rh incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While assessing the mother, she is found to have mild learning difficulties, short stature and a heart murmur. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is Noonan syndrome.Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by short stature, heart defects (mainly pulmonary stenosis) and learning difficulties. An affected foetus can present with a significant increase in the nuchal thickness or a cystic hygroma of the neck. The condition is variable, and an affected parent is often only diagnosed after the diagnosis in the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 63
Correct
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An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?
Your Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 64
Correct
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An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg for the past four weeks. His mother describes him as ‘being off-colour’ of late. The physical examination of the child revealed no findings. Blood investigations reveal: Hb: 11.5 g/dL (13-18) WBC Count: 2.0 x 109/L (4-11) Differential Count: Neutrophils: 0.5 x 109/L (1.5-7.0) Lymphocytes: 1.4 x 109/L (1.5-4.0) Platelet count: 160 x 109/L (150-400) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate: 50 mm in the 1st hourUrea and electrolytes were found to be within the normal range. An MRI showed diffuse uptake in both femurs, which are highly suggestive of tumour infiltration. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:The clinical features and the presentation of this child and the MRI findings are highly suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.Anaemia and neutropenia, with a borderline platelet count as well as the tumour infiltration on both femurs on the MRI scan, are suggestive of a widespread Marrow disorder. Based on the age of the patient, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is more appropriate as it is more common than acute myeloid leukaemia in children and can present with bony pain in this age group.Other options:- Acute myeloid leukaemia: Although this is the most common leukaemia that is seen in adults, it rarely presents in children. – Ewing’s sarcoma: This would usually present in a more unilateral manner, and would only be associated with cytopenia if there was direct bone marrow involvement.- HIV infection: It would be very rare in this group. HIV infection can cause a wide array of signs and symptoms, but we are told that the MRI scan is highly suggestive of tumour infiltration, which would be uncommon in this condition. – Juvenile arthritis: It is much less common. There is also nothing to find on examination, such as swollen or painful joints, which would usually be seen in this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 65
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy?
Your Answer: Maternal weight gain is maximum during mid-pregnancy
Explanation:Teenagers may have poor eating habits and neglect to take their vitamin supplements. They are less likely than older women to be of adequate pre-pregnancy weight or to gain an adequate amount of weight during pregnancy. Low weight gain increases the risk of having a low birthweight baby. Weight gain is maximal during the 2nd trimester.aPTT and gallbladder emptying is decreased during pregnancy whereas d-dimers is increased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb
Explanation:In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Explanation:Answer: Oculogyric crisisOculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation
Explanation:A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last night and prevented him from sleeping. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. On examination, he has a fever. A bulging tympanic membrane with a visible fluid level is seen on otoscopy. You suspect a diagnosis of acute suppurative otitis media. Tensor tympani is a muscle that is found in the middle ear. What is the nerve supplying the tensor tympani?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve
Explanation:The nerve supply to the tensor tympani is the mandibular nerve.The mandibular nerve is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibres.Tensor tympani is a muscle that lies in a bony canal just superior to the pharyngotympanic tube. It originates from the cartilaginous portion of the pharyngotympanic tube, the bony canal in which it sits, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It inserts into the upper part of the handle of the malleus. When contracted, it pulls the handle of the malleus medially. This action increases the tension across the tympanic membrane, reducing the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear. This dampens loud noises or noises produced by chewing. Tensor tympani is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.Other options:- The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. This nerve has two components, a vestibular division that carries balance information, and a cochlear division that carries hearing information.- The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve. It has a wide range of functions. It carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, as well as sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal and auricle. It carries parasympathetic fibres that supply the parotid gland. It also supplies the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus and supplies the secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland.- The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibres.- The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve. It supplies the muscles of facial expression, as well as stylohyoid, the posterior belly of digastric, and stapedius (the only other muscle associated with the middle ear). It carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, parts of the auricle and the retro-auricular area. It provides secretomotor fibres which supply to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland (via chorda tympani nerve), nasal glands and lacrimal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Collecting ducts
Explanation:ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male arrives at the clinic, 7 days after having unprotected intercourse with his girlfriend, and complains of dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. He is otherwise feeling well. Microscopic examination of the urethral swab shows gram negative diplococci. Which of the following drugs should be used in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Effective treatment can cure gonorrhoea and help prevent long-term complications. CDC recommends a single dose of 250mg of intramuscular ceftriaxone AND 1g of oral azithromycin. It is important to take all of the medication prescribed to cure gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined pill
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy observed a bluish painless swelling in his left scrotum. It is soft and can be compressed. What would you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The boy seems to have a varicocele so the most appropriate next step would be reassurance. A varicocele is an enlargement of the veins within the scrotum called the pampiniform plexus. A varicocele only occurs in the scrotum and is very similar to varicose veins that can occur in the leg. Because a varicocele usually causes no symptoms, it often requires no treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of bone marrow failure syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kostmann syndrome
Explanation:Bone marrow failure syndromes are characterized by the bone marrow’s inability to produce cells of different lineage. They can be classified as those affecting one or two cell lineages or those affecting all three of them. Fanconi syndrome, along with dyskeratosis congenita, is one of the inherited bone marrow failure syndromes that causes pancytopenia. Other inherited disorders affecting hematopoietic lineage include Diamond-Blackfan anaemia, Schwachman-Diamond syndrome, congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia (CAMT) and Thrombocytopenia absent radii (TAR) syndrome. Acquired causes of bone marrow failure that lead to pancytopenia include aplastic anaemia, drugs, nutritional deficiencies, and viral infections. Kostmann syndrome is an autosomal recessive form of severe neutropenia, most likely due to excessive neutrophil apoptosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner’s phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Koebner’s phenomenon describes skin lesions that occur on damaged skin, usually in a linear fashion at the site of injury. Conditions which exhibit true Koebnerisation include psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosis, vitiligo, Kaposi sarcoma and SLE. Conditions such as erythema nodosum or multiforme, or Lyme disease and Impetigo do not exhibit Koebner’s phenomenon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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