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  • Question 1 - A 8 year old boy who had not wet his bed for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old boy who had not wet his bed for the past 3 and half years, presented with bed wetting for 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Suggest a pre-bed routine and avoid drinks before going to bed

      Correct Answer: Investigate for secondary causes

      Explanation:

      As this boy was dry for a considerable period, there is a high chance of a secondary cause for the bed wetting, such as bladder infections, constipation, diabetes, psychological stress and hormonal problems etc. These have to be excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following abnormalities is most often associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Bronchogenic cyst

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is an abnormality of anterior urethral and penile development. The urethral opening is located on the ventral aspect of the penis proximal to the tip of the glans penis, which, in this condition, is open. The urethral opening may be located as proximal as in the scrotum or perineum. The penis may also have associated ventral shortening and curvature, called chordee, with more proximal urethral defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An infant under investigation for persistent jaundice has a systolic murmur consistent with...

    Incorrect

    • An infant under investigation for persistent jaundice has a systolic murmur consistent with pulmonary valve disease. Ophthalmological assessment reveals a posterior embryotoxon.Which of the following skeletal abnormalities is to be considered in this child?

      Your Answer: Pectus carinatum

      Correct Answer: Butterfly vertebrae

      Explanation:

      The combination of cholestasis, congenital heart disease (mainly affecting the pulmonary vasculature) and anterior-segment abnormalities (primarily posterior embryotoxon) suggests a diagnosis of Alagille syndrome. Clinical features:The facial features are characteristic and include a prominent forehead, deep-set eyes and a pointed chin. The most common skeletal manifestation is butterfly vertebrae, a clefting abnormality of the vertebrae most often seen in the thoracic spine and described in up to 87% of cases. Radio-ulnar synostosis and short phalanges have also been described in Alagille but less frequently. Note: Pectus excavatum is a feature of Noonan syndrome, one of the differential diagnoses of pulmonary valve disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

      Explanation:

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with primary amenorrhoea and poor pubertal development. Investigations reveal low oestrogen, and high LH and FSH. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal...

    Correct

    • A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal pulses and otherwise normal examination. There are no dysmorphic features on the routine first-day neonatal check. What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken immediately?

      Your Answer: Pre-and post-ductal saturations

      Explanation:

      Certain CHDs may present with a differential cyanosis, in which the preductal part of the body (upper part of the body) is pinkish but the post ductal part of the body (lower part of the body) is cyanotic, or vice versa (reverse differential cyanosis). The prerequisite for this unique situation is the presence of a right-to-left shunt through the PDA and severe coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption or severe pulmonary hypertension. In patients with severe coarctation of the aorta or interruption of the aortic arch with normally related great arteries, the preductal part of the body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA and LV, whereas the post ductal part is supplied by deoxygenated systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, main pulmonary artery (MPA) and the PDA. In the new-born with structurally normal heart, a differential cyanosis may be associated with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. In the cases of TGA with coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption, the upper body is mostly supplied by systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, and ascending aorta, whereas the lower body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA, LV, MPA, and then the PDA. For accurate detection of differential cyanosis, oxygen saturation should be measured in both preductal (right finger) and post ductal (feet) parts of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial complex seizure?

      Your Answer: Dysphasic speech

      Correct Answer: Induction by hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures are induced by over breathing or hyperventilation, while the other features suggest partial seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation. Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?

      Your Answer: Efavirenz

      Explanation:

      The antiretroviral agent for the side effects mentioned is most probably, efavirenz.Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and the most likely cause of new-onset psychiatric symptoms in someone taking HAART. In this scenario the patient had no pre-existing mental health problems, as other antiretrovirals can cause depression and suicidal ideation in those who have a past psychiatric history. Symptoms usually subside after a few weeks of treatment.Other options:- Emtricitabine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and is also not known to cause psychiatric side effects. The most common side effects of Emtricitabine are rash and darkening of the palms or soles.- Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause insomnia, but does not commonly cause other psychiatric symptoms.- Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause depression. However, this is more common in those with a history of mental health problems.- Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The most common side effect of Tenofovir is gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to cause psychiatric side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The following best describes non parametric tests: ...

    Correct

    • The following best describes non parametric tests:

      Your Answer: Are less powerful than parametric tests

      Explanation:

      Compared to parametric tests, non parametric tests are seen to be less powerful as they often contend with fewer assumptions, and may use less information from the data. Sample sizes can be smaller. The samples do not have to follow a normal distribution as in parametric tests, and data may be ordinal, ranked or contain outliers that cannot be removed. Therefore nonparametric tests are well suited for these instances and do not need to be used as a last resort. They are not any more complex than parametric tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?...

    Incorrect

    • Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Duplex kidney

      Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Advancing paternal age has been linked with lower quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility and an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.'...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Gilbert’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypotension and bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of...

    Correct

    • Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers of her school have brought to their attention that she struggles to see the whiteboard in class. The parents have also noticed that she has difficulty when looking at the computer.Except for being a nervous reader at times, the parents haven't noticed anything else unusual. She's otherwise healthy and plays well with her friends.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Refractive error

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the child most probably is suffering from a refractive error.Astigmatism, myopia and high hypermetropia could all cause these symptoms. This child has difficulty in using vision for finer tasks such as reading. Mild to moderate refractive error would not impair the child’s ability to play or even watch television as for the child in question. Note: Refractive error is the most common treatable cause of reduced vision in children all over the world! Other options:- A congenital cataract is rare and retinal dystrophy is even rarer. – Amblyopia would suggest poor vision in only one eye, something that might not cause symptoms in this age group. – Parents or teachers would have probably noticed squint if it was present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise? ...

    Incorrect

    • To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise?

      Your Answer: Detrusor portion of bladder

      Correct Answer: Seminal vesicles

      Explanation:

      The mesonephric duct is one of the paired embryogenic tubules that drain the primitive kidney (mesonephros) to the cloaca. It also gives off a lateral branch forming the ureteric bud. In both the male and the female the Wolffian duct develops into the trigone of the urinary bladder. When the ducts are exposed to testosterone during embryogenesis, male sexual differentiation occurs: the mesonephric duct develops into the rete testis, the ejaculatory ducts, the epididymis, the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?

      Your Answer: Surveillance colonoscopy every 1–2 years from the age of 16 years onwards

      Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 17-month-old boy is brought by his mother to the hospital. She is...

    Correct

    • A 17-month-old boy is brought by his mother to the hospital. She is concerned that he is having symptoms of itching, being very upset and unsettled. They hail from a low socioeconomic background and have poor living conditions. On examination, an itchy, papular rash is noted on the palms of his hands specifically in the web spaces between the fingers, as well as in the groin region. He was normothermic. The mother explains that his sister also has similar symptoms.What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is Sarcoptes scabeii.Scabies:The boy in the scenario presents with a pruritic rash affecting the palms of the hands, especially in the web spaces between the fingers. Additionally, the fact that his sister is showing similar symptoms is an indication of its infectivity. The female Sarcoptes scabiei var hominis mite burrows into the webs of fingers and the sides of digits as seen in the child.This parasitic skin infestation presents typically with nocturnal itching. Other options:- Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This can affect this age group but would usually present with a vesicular perioral rash with associated erythema. – Human papillomavirus (HPV): Cutaneous human papillomavirus infection causes warts, which can form a dome and fleshy shaped lesions on the palms of the hands, but these are not usually itchy. Similar to the causative agent in the boy, they are contagious.- Poxvirus: These viruses cause molluscum contagiosum which presents as dome-shaped lesions anywhere on the body, rather than specifically in palms of hands or finger webs as seen in the boy. Poxviruses are also very infectious.- Staphylococcal infection: This causes impetigo, which presents with yellow discharge and underlying erythema. Impetigo is not usually itchy and can present on any part of the body, rather than the specific areas seen in the boy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A woman gave birth to an infant at 39 weeks' gestation. The infant...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gave birth to an infant at 39 weeks' gestation. The infant has a pulse of 110 bpm, grimaces upon nasal stimulation and has good muscle tone. Moreover, the colour of the infant is pink except for the extremities, which are blueish. What is the infants APGAR score?

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      Apgar is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. The 1-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process. The 5-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb. More specifically, five components are assessed and these are the appearance (A), the pulse (P), the grimace (G), the activity (A) and the respiration (R). A normal APGAR score is considered to be 10 points, 2 points given for each normal component. In this case, 1 point is given for the appearance due to the bluish extremities, 2 points are given for the pulse which is higher than 100 bpm, 1 point is given for the grimacing, 2 points are given for the activity due to the good muscle tone and 1 point is given for the respiration due to gasping. Total score is 7 points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A male term infant was admitted to the neonatal unit on day 4...

    Correct

    • A male term infant was admitted to the neonatal unit on day 4 for severe jaundice. The bilirubin at that time was 320 mmol/l, which decreased with phototherapy. At day 30, the baby still required phototherapy to keep the bilirubin below the treatment line. On examination, the skin had a tanned appearance and his sclerae were icteric. Mother’s blood group was A+, the baby's blood group was A+, direct Coombs test (DCT) was negative. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crigler-Najjar syndrome

      Explanation:

      Crigler-Najjar syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by an inability to properly convert and clear bilirubin from the body.The hallmark finding of Crigler-Najjar syndrome is a persistent yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes and whites of the eyes (jaundice).There are two forms of this disorder: Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I, characterized by a nearly complete lack of enzyme activity and severe, even life-threatening symptoms| and Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II, characterized by partial enzyme activity and milder symptoms. Both forms are inherited as autosomal recessive traits and are caused by errors or disruptions (mutations) of the UGT1A1 gene.The symptoms of Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I become apparent shortly after birth. Affected infants develop severe, persistent yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes and whites of the eyes (jaundice). These symptoms persist after the first three weeks of life.Infants are at risk for developing kernicterus, also known as bilirubin encephalopathy, within the first month of life.Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II is a milder disorder than type I. Affected infants develop jaundice, which increases during times when an infant is sick (concurrent illness), has not eaten for an extended period (prolonged fasting) or is under general anaesthesia. Some people have not been diagnosed until they are adults. Kernicterus is rare in Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II, but can occur especially when an affected individual is sick, not eating or under anaesthesia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart rate but is in respiratory distress. Which of the following syndromes is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Down syndrome

      Correct Answer: Werdnig–Hoffman disease (spinomuscular atrophy type 1)

      Explanation:

      The spinal muscular atrophies (SMAs) comprise a group of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by progressive weakness of the lower motor neurons. several types of spinal muscular atrophies have been described based on age when accompanying clinical features appear. The most common types are acute infantile (SMA type I, or Werdnig-Hoffman disease), chronic infantile (SMA type II), chronic juvenile (SMA type III or Kugelberg-Welander disease), and adult-onset (SMA type IV) forms.SMA type I – Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman diseasePatients present before 6 months of age, with 95% of patients having signs and symptoms by 3 months. They have severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone (hypotonia). Bulbar dysfunction includes poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure. Patients have no involvement of the extraocular muscles, and facial weakness is often minimal or absent. They have no evidence of cerebral involvement, and infants appear alert.Reports of impaired fetal movements are observed in 30% of cases, and 60% of infants with SMA type I are floppy babies at birth. Prolonged cyanosis may be noted at delivery. In some instances, the disease can cause fulminant weakness in the first few days of life. Such severe weakness and early bulbar dysfunction are associated with short life expectancy, with a mean survival of 5.9 months. In 95% of cases, infants die from complications of the disease by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      58.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?...

    Correct

    • Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?

      Your Answer: Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common yet serious condition characterized by blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. There are multiple aetiologies and various risk factors that lead to hypoglycaemia in new-borns like prematurity, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, and maternal diabetes- induced hyperinsulinism in the new-born. Among the inborn errors of metabolism, fatty acid oxidation defects can lead to persistent hypoglycaemia in new-borns. One such defect is the medium- chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, which is the enzyme needed for the breakdown of medium- chain fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?

      Your Answer: Gluten-free products (e.g. breads, pasta, biscuits and crackers) are as nutritious in terms of their micronutrient contents as those containing gluten

      Correct Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. On examination, palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen elicits pain in the right lower quadrant. What is this sign?

      Your Answer: Rovsing's sign

      Explanation:

      Based on the findings presented, the sign elicited is Rovsing’s sign.Rovsing’s sign:It is a sign suggestive of appendicitis. A positive sign is determined when palpation in the left lower quadrant of a patient’s abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.Other options:- Murphy’s sign is positive in gallbladder inflammation. With the upper border of the examiner’s hand in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen under the rib cage, the patient is asked to inhale. Inhalation causes the gallbladder to descend, which catches on the fingers, causing pain.- Cullen’s sign is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis and describes the bruising around the umbilicus.- Tinel’s sign is positive in those with carpal tunnel syndrome. The examiner’s fingers tap the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum, which causes paraesthesia over the distribution of the median nerve.- Battles’ sign describes bruising behind the ear, suggesting a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 8 year old male child presents with an injury to his right...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male child presents with an injury to his right brachial plexus in a motor vehicle accident. Clinical examination reveals a right shoulder weakness when it comes to abduction and flexion of the forearm. His lateral aspect of the right upper arm seems to have some sensory loss as well. All reflexes are present except for the right biceps and brachioradial ones. What is the level of brachial plexus injury?

      Your Answer: C5,6 root

      Explanation:

      Upper brachial plexus roots innervate the proximal muscles of the shoulder and the upper arm. In this particular case, only these areas are affected, suggesting that the levels of brachial plexus injury are at roots C5-C6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism?

      Your Answer: Premature menopause

      Correct Answer: Delayed puberty

      Explanation:

      Hirsutism is the growth of excess hair in androgen dependent areas or in a male pattern. The phenomenon is found in conditions where there is abnormal androgen action. This can occur in adrenal lesions including congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome, or a failure to produce adequate female hormones such as PCOS and premature menopause. Similarly, drugs such as anabolic steroids, danazol and minoxidil can also cause hirsutism. Delayed puberty is unlikely to cause hirsutism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular pain. On examination, he is found to have testicular tenderness. On trans-illumination, a faint blue dot can be seen. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic Scrotal Oedema

      Correct Answer: Torsion of the hydatid cyst of the testis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be torsion of a hydatid cyst of the testis.Note:The differential diagnoses in acute testicular pain/swelling are listed in the possible answers. Testicular torsion typically affects adolescent males and presents with acute painful swelling and a horizontally lying testicle. Other options:- Epididymo-orchitis is diagnosed during surgery when a thickened erythematous epididymis is noted. Ectopic ureteric insertion into the vas must be excluded by ultrasound scan on an out-patient basis. The hydatid cyst or cyst of Morgagni represents the remnants of the Mullerian structure. In the pre-pubertal child, a surge in hormones can stimulate growth and chance of torsion. It is diagnosed by surgical exploration or by a blue dot sign. Idiopathic scrotal oedema tends to be within the scrotum itself, and the testis can be examined in the groin to exclude pain in the testis. All acute scrotal pain must be explored to exclude testicular torsion unless a surgical registrar is convinced of a torted hydatid cyst.- An 8-year-old is more likely to present with a torted hydatid cyst. The blue dot sign is diagnostic and can negate the need for surgical exploration. The age of the child also makes epididymo-orchitis less likely.- Idiopathic scrotal oedema presents with an erythematous and thickened scrotum. This can cross the midline and involve the whole scrotum.- Finally, an inguinal hernia would present with a mass in the groin extending to the scrotum that you cannot get above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Where does Stensens duct primarily open? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does Stensens duct primarily open?

      Your Answer: Floor of mouth

      Correct Answer: Opposite the second molar tooth

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct (Stensen’s duct), which provides an exit for the gland’s secretions, passes through the anterior edge of the gland in the superficial lobe, turns medially at the anterior border of the masseter, penetrates the buccinator, then enters the oral cavity lateral to the second maxillary molar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?

      Your Answer: Association with HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Fertility is affected

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?

      Your Answer: Galactosaemia

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Testicular feminisation

      Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhea is defined as the total absence of menarche in a girl of 14 years of age if the secondary sexual characteristics are also absent or in a girl of 16 years of age in whom normal secondary sexual characteristics are present. There are multiple causes of primary amenorrhea, but the most common are constitutional delay, imperforate hymen, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypothalamic failure, and testicular feminization. Cushing’s syndrome leads to secondary amenorrhea, which is defined as the absence of a menstrual period for 6 consecutive cycles in a girl who has achieved menarche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for patients with Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome typically have small testes that produce a reduced amount of testosterone (primary testicular insufficiency). Testosterone is the hormone that directs male sexual development before birth and during puberty. Without treatment, the shortage of testosterone can lead to delayed or incomplete puberty, breast enlargement (gynecomastia), decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, and a reduced amount of facial and body hair. As a result of the small testes and decreased hormone production, affected males are not generally infertile but may benefit from assisted reproductive technologies. Some affected individuals also have differences in their genitalia, including undescended testes (cryptorchidism), the opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis (hypospadias), or an unusually small penis (micropenis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck...

    Incorrect

    • A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?

      Your Answer: Yolk sac

      Correct Answer: Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially...

    Correct

    • A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially appears to be stable. However, over the next 24 hours, he develops worsening neurological function.Which one of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences.Loss of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is a pathophysiologic feature of germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Prematurity itself results in derangements in cerebral autoregulation. In some patients, a history of additional events that result in loss of autoregulation can be obtained. Furthermore, events that can result in beat-to-beat variability of cerebral blood flow may be identified in some patients.There may be no symptoms. The most common symptoms seen in premature infants include:- Breathing pauses (apnoea)- Changes in blood pressure and heart rate- Decreased muscle tone- Decreased reflexes- Excessive sleep- Lethargy- Weak suck- Seizures and other abnormal movements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile foreskin has been treated with 1% hydrocortisone for 3 months. He presents with a white and thickened foreskin. What would you do next to manage his condition?

      Your Answer: Circumcision with urethral calibration

      Explanation:

      The boy suffers from balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) which is surgically treated with circumcision and urethral calibration. In fact, the condition is the only true medical indication for circumcision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer: 2-5%

      Correct Answer: 15-20%

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Mature human milk contains how many calories? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mature human milk contains how many calories?

      Your Answer: 60kcal/100ml

      Correct Answer: 70kcal/100ml

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition changes with the progressive age of the infant. Breastmilk produced for a preterm baby often has a higher caloric content than breastmilk for a term baby. After the production of colostrum in the first days of life, the milk continues to mature. by week 4-6 milk can be considered fully mature. The average calories found in mature breastmilk are about 70kcal/100ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - An 8 year old male child of Afro-Caribbean descent complains of acute abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male child of Afro-Caribbean descent complains of acute abdominal pain. Clinical examination reveals a soft abdomen. The boy is tachycardic and has an Hb of 6 g/dl. His mother says she noticed fresh rectal bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle Cell Crisis

      Correct Answer: Meckel's Diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Compared to the rest of the options, Meckel’s diverticulum with ectopic gastric mucosa seems to be the most probable diagnosis, as it can lead to fresh bleeding.Fresh red bleeding can be caused by haemorrhoids, polyps or a massive GI bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are...

    Incorrect

    • A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Medulla of the spleen

      Correct Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following is true of scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of scabies?

      Your Answer: Burrows rather than granulomatous nodules are seen

      Correct Answer: The mite lives in the stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      Scabies is a dermatological condition caused by infestation of the Sarcoptes Scaibie. The tiny mite, often unseen by the naked human eye, is able to burrow into the stratum corneum where it lays its eggs, causing irritation and a rash related to the immune response against the mite and its eggs, saliva and faeces. On examination, the pathognomic small burrows are often seen on the skin along with small red papules and scratch marks| granulomatous nodules may also be seen especially in darker skin types. Other clinical subtypes such as bullous, and Norwegian (crusted) also exist. Common areas of infection include the hands, wrists, and the interdigital spaces. Infestation can also occur on the genital area, the buttocks, feet, ankles, flexor surfaces. First line treatment is with permethrin 5% dermal cream. It is important that all members of the household are also treated at the same time, and that contaminated bedding, clothes and furniture is adequately disinfected. Scabies is usually associated with overcrowded conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 6 year old boy with a history of pharyngitis 10 days ago,...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy with a history of pharyngitis 10 days ago, presents with periorbital oedema. You perform a urine dipstick test which shows 1+ for protein and 3+ for blood. Family history is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The child has a history of pharyngitis followed 10 days later by signs of glomerulonephritis. In this particular case, it is most probably a post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis which accounts for 80% of paediatric cases of glomerulonephritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Use emollient wet wraps at night for 1 week then continue current treatment

      Correct Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix develops a swinging temperature of 38.8 C while on admission. What is next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Arrange for an ultrasound scan to look for intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Children who present with ruptured appendices are at increased risk of intra abdominal collections or abscesses. A swinging temperature is the first clue in indicating an intra abdominal abscess in a patient who had recently undergone surgery for a perforated appendix. The best course of action is therefore to get an ultrasound of the fluid collection before proceeding to rule out any other complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: VACTERL

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to the neonatal unit, there is a sac found covering a 3cm defect with what appears to be intestine| no liver is visible. The baby has no dysmorphic features other than a large tongue. What is the immediate danger with this baby?

      Your Answer: Beckwith-Wiedermann syndrome, risk of hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS) was first characterized by Patients having abdominal wall defects, macrosomia, macroglossia, and enlarged adrenal glands. Since then, the clinical presentation has expanded to recognize hemihypertrophy/lateralized overgrowth, hyperinsulinism, omphalocele, and organomegaly as classic features of BWS.About 50% of children with BWS have hypoglycaemia and therefore patients with diagnosed BWS should be evaluated for hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia in most BWS new-borns generally resolves within the first few days of life. However, in about 5% of patients that have hyperinsulinism, the severe prolonged hypoglycaemia requires escalated therapy ranging for medication (diazoxide) to partial pancreatectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus?

      Your Answer: Approximately half of all women have vaginal colonisation with group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis

      Explanation:

      Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis. Group B Streptococcus (GBS), also known as Streptococcus agalactiae, is best known as a cause of postpartum infection and as the most common cause of neonatal sepsis. The GBS organism colonizes the vagina, GI tract, and the upper respiratory tract of healthy humans. GBS infection is almost always associated with underlying abnormalities. In elderly persons aged 70 years or older, GBS infection is strongly linked with congestive heart failure and being bedridden.Penicillin remains the drug of choice for group B streptococcal infection but resistance may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a tonic-clonic seizure that lasted for three minutes. The doctor measures the blood pressure in all four limbs which is 180 mmHg. His creatinine is 60 μmol/l and he looks dehydrated. The kidneys look small and echogenic on ultrasound. Which of the following steps is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Four-hourly blood pressure measurement should be requested

      Correct Answer: Ophthalmology assessment is indicated

      Explanation:

      The child requires frequent BP evaluation every 15 to 30 minutes. Normalisation of his BP should be achieved in a 48h interval. An ophthalmology assessment is indicated to check for acute injury of the blood vessels in the eye due to the elevated blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of bone marrow failure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of bone marrow failure syndrome?

      Your Answer: Schwachman - Diamond syndrome

      Correct Answer: Kostmann syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bone marrow failure syndromes are characterized by the bone marrow’s inability to produce cells of different lineage. They can be classified as those affecting one or two cell lineages or those affecting all three of them. Fanconi syndrome, along with dyskeratosis congenita, is one of the inherited bone marrow failure syndromes that causes pancytopenia. Other inherited disorders affecting hematopoietic lineage include Diamond-Blackfan anaemia, Schwachman-Diamond syndrome, congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia (CAMT) and Thrombocytopenia absent radii (TAR) syndrome. Acquired causes of bone marrow failure that lead to pancytopenia include aplastic anaemia, drugs, nutritional deficiencies, and viral infections. Kostmann syndrome is an autosomal recessive form of severe neutropenia, most likely due to excessive neutrophil apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with...

    Correct

    • A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 15-year-old girl with acute Guillain-Barre syndrome has developed worsening weakness of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl with acute Guillain-Barre syndrome has developed worsening weakness of her proximal muscles. Which of the following tests should be used to monitor her respiratory function?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Correct Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      One-third of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome suffer from diaphragm weakness which can lead to further respiratory complications if there is involvement of the tongue, palate, and neck muscles. Forced vital capacity (FVC) is the best way to monitor respiratory muscle function by assessing it repeatedly. Admission for ITU is suggested when FVC is below 20ml/kg and intubation recommended when FVC is 15ml/kg or below. FVC is used in any neurological disorders wherein the respiratory muscles are affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 17-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with erythematous plaques on her chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with erythematous plaques on her chest and forearm during autumn. Presence of which of the following will point towards a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Porphyria screen

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis rosea is a common, acute exanthem of uncertain aetiology. Viral and bacterial causes have been sought, but convincing answers have not yet been found. Pityriasis rosea typically affects children and young adults. It is characterized by an initial herald patch, followed by the development of a diffuse papulosquamous rash. The herald patch often is misdiagnosed as eczema. Pityriasis rosea is difficult to identify until the appearance of characteristic smaller secondary lesions that follow Langer’s lines (cleavage lines). Several medications can cause a rash similar to pityriasis rosea, and several diseases, including secondary syphilis, are included in the differential diagnosis. Typically, only symptomatic treatment of pruritus with lotions, oral antihistamines, and/or a short course of topical steroids is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 16 year old girl with a history of diabetes presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl with a history of diabetes presents with a vaginal discharge that is white and thick. She also complains of vaginal itchiness. Doctors suspect candidiasis and start her on clotrimazole. How does this drug work?

      Your Answer: Increases ergosterol biosynthesis, disrupting membrane-bound enzyme systems in the absence of changes to membrane permeability

      Correct Answer: Decreases ergosterol biosynthesis, increasing membrane permeability and disrupting membrane-bound enzyme systems

      Explanation:

      Clotrimazole interferes with the ergosterol biosynthesis by decreasing ergosteron I biosynthesis, increasing membrane permeability, and disrupting membrane-bound enzyme systems.Vaginal candidiasis is an extremely common condition. Predisposing factors include:- diabetes mellitus- drugs: antibiotics, steroids- pregnancy- immunosuppression – iatrogenic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode of diarrhoea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg...

    Correct

    • A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?

      Your Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately....

    Correct

    • Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately. Which of the following is a complication of ROP in an infant?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy of prematurity affects infants born early, and is due to the abnormal growth of retinal vasculature as opposed to vascular occlusion often see in adults. Though most babies with ROP can see normally, the most significant complication of ROP Is retinal detachment which can lead to blindness. Other structures in the eye such as the optic nerve or the fovea however, are not affected. Children may develop nystagmus as a result of poor sight in the affected eye(s).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts? ...

    Correct

    • Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?

      Your Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)

      Explanation:

      Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following is true regarding pubic lice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding pubic lice?

      Your Answer: It is caused by Pediculus humanus

      Correct Answer: Tiny dark-brown or black specks of lice excrement can be seen in the underwear

      Explanation:

      Pubic lice are commonly referred to as ‘crabs’ because of their short, broad body (about 1 mm), and large front claws. Pubic lice infestation is diagnosed by finding a “crab” louse or eggs on hair in the pubic region or, less commonly, elsewhere on the body (eyebrows, eyelashes, beard, moustache, armpit, perianal area, groin, trunk, scalp). Although pubic lice and nits can be large enough to be seen with the naked eye, a magnifying lens may be necessary to find lice or eggs.Pubic lice are transmitted from person to person most-commonly via sexual contact, although fomites (bedding, clothing) may play a minor role in their transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?

      Your Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60

      Explanation:

      Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome. Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome. Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome. Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      13.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (2/6) 33%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (2/4) 50%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Neonatology (3/7) 43%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
HIV (1/1) 100%
ENT (2/3) 67%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (4/8) 50%
Emergency Medicine (2/4) 50%
Adolescent Health (2/5) 40%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/6) 17%
Nutrition (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Passmed