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  • Question 1 - After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: 15 minutes

      Correct Answer: 25 minutes

      Explanation:

      If seizures recur or fail to respond after initial treatment with benzodiazepines within 25 minutes of onset, phenytoin sodium, fosphenytoin sodium, or phenobarbital sodium should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      231859.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man had a painless superficial inguinal lymphadenopathy. It was later found...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man had a painless superficial inguinal lymphadenopathy. It was later found to be malignant. Which of the following parts of the body is most likely the origin of this cancerous lymph node?

      Your Answer: Testes

      Correct Answer: Anal canal

      Explanation:

      A cancer of the anal canal below the pectinate line would spread to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

      Anal cancer often spreads through lymphatic drainage to the internal iliac lymph nodes in lesions above the pectinate line and to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes in lesions below the pectinate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of...

    Correct

    • A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the anterior triangle of the neck.
      Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Sternohyoid

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:
      Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid muscles
      Organs: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid gland
      Arteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteries
      Veins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veins
      Nerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerve

      The posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.
      Contents:
      Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodes
      Nerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      146.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect: ...

    Correct

    • Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect:

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of lithium Include

      Leucocytosis (most patients)
      Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      Dry mouth (20-50%)
      Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      Confusion (40%)
      Decreased memory (40%)
      Headache (40%)
      Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      Hyperreflexia (15%)
      Muscle twitch (15%)
      Vertigo (15%)
      Extrapyramidal symptoms, goitre (5%)
      Hypothyroidism (1-4%)
      Acne (1%)
      Hair thinning (1%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the hand. On examination Tinel's test is positive and you diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Regarding the carpal tunnel, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The flexor retinaculum forms the roof of the carpal tunnel.

      Correct Answer: The tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus lie within a single synovial sheath.

      Explanation:

      Free movement of the tendons in the carpal tunnel is facilitated by synovial sheaths, which surround the tendons. All of the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) and flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) are contained within a single synovial sheath with a separate sheath enclosing the tendon of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      95
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:

      Your Answer: Receptive dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      161.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to his right hand whilst playing cricket. He is unable to fully straighten his right middle finger as the distal phalanx remains flexed. Which of the following structures within the digit was most likely injured:

      Your Answer: Insertion of central slip of extensor digitorum tendon

      Correct Answer: Insertion of terminal extensor digitorum tendon

      Explanation:

      Damage to the insertion of the terminal extensor digitorum tendon would result in loss of extension at the distal interphalangeal joint causing a fixed flexion deformity, called the Mallet deformity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following:

      Your Answer: Sacral splanchnic nerves

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic supply is from the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2 – S4) and inferior hypogastric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      304.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer: The facial nerve carries parasympathetic fibres to the lacrimal glands.

      Correct Answer: Forehead sparing in facial nerve palsy is indicative of a lower motor neuron lesion.

      Explanation:

      In facial nerve palsy, LMN damage will involve the forehead and there will be an inability to close the eyes due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi or raise the eyebrows due to paralysis of the occipitofrontalis muscle.
      UMN damage causes sparing of the forehead as the occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi muscles have bilateral cortical representation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      312.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding the abductor pollicis longus, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the abductor pollicis longus, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It arises from the lateral epicondyle of the elbow

      Correct Answer: It extends the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint

      Explanation:

      Abductor pollicis longus is a muscle found in the posterior compartment of the forearm. It is one of the five deep extensors in the forearm, along with the supinator, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis.

      Abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), which is a continuation of the deep branch of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

      Blood supply to the abductor pollicis longus muscle comes from the interosseous branches of the ulnar artery.

      Acting alone or with abductor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus pulls the thumb away from the palm. More specifically, it produces (mid-) extension and abduction of the thumb at the first metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is seen in activities such as bowling and shovelling.

      Working together with the long and short extensors of the thumb, the muscle also helps to fully extend the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is important for loosening the hand grip, for example, when letting go of objects previously being held. Abductor pollicis longus also helps to abduct the hand (radial deviation) at the radiocarpal joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Thyroid cancer has spread to the regional lymph nodes of a patient as...

    Incorrect

    • Thyroid cancer has spread to the regional lymph nodes of a patient as seen in a staging CT scan.

      The lymph from the thyroid gland will drain directly to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer: Jugulodigastric lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Deep lateral cervical lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the thyroid gland involves the lower deep cervical, prelaryngeal, pretracheal, and paratracheal nodes. The paratracheal and lower deep cervical nodes, specifically, receive lymphatic drainage from the isthmus and the inferior lateral lobes. The superior portions of the thyroid gland drain into the superior pretracheal and cervical nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      140.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep fibular nerve was previously referred to as the anterior tibial nerve.

      It starts at the common fibular nerve bifurcation, between the fibula and the proximal part of the fibularis longus. Damage to this nerve can cause foot drop or loss of dorsiflexion since this nerve controls the anterior leg muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      1275.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with a foot drop?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve often referred to as the common fibular nerve, is a major nerve that innervates the lower extremity. It is one of the two major branches off the sciatic nerve and receives fibres from the posterior divisions of L4 through S2 nerve roots. The common peroneal nerve separates from the sciatic nerve in the distal posterior thigh proximal to the popliteal fossa. After branching off of the sciatic nerve, it continues down the thigh, running posteroinferior to the biceps femoris muscle, and crosses laterally to the head of the lateral gastrocnemius muscle through the posterior intermuscular septum. The nerve then curves around the fibular neck before dividing into two branches, the superficial peroneal nerve (SPN) and the deep peroneal nerve (DPN). The common peroneal nerve does not have any motor innervation before dividing; however, it provides sensory innervation to the lateral leg via the lateral sural nerve.

      The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg, and the deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg and the dorsum of the foot. These two nerves are essential in the eversion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the foot, respectively. The superficial and deep peroneal nerves provide both motor and sensory innervation.

      The most common presentation with common peroneal nerve injury or palsy is acute foot drop, although symptoms may be progressive and can include sensory loss or pain. Weakness in foot eversion may occur if the superficial peroneal nerve component is involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he exhibits left-sided hemiplegia and left-sided loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense and discriminatory touch. In addition, he has the inability to abduct his right eye and is holding his head towards the right side. A CT scan was ordered and showed that he has suffered a right-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Vertebral artery

      Correct Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Inferior medial pontine syndrome, also known as Foville syndrome, is one of the brainstem stroke syndromes which occurs when there is infarction of the medial inferior aspect of the pons due to occlusion of the paramedian branches of the basilar artery.

      It is characterized by ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy, facial palsy, contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral facial weakness, and lateral gaze paralysis and diplopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      320.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 33-year-old heavily muscled man presents with left-sided chest pain. After taking part...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old heavily muscled man presents with left-sided chest pain. After taking part in a powerlifting competition, he felt a painful snap at the front of his shoulder and chest. There is also the presence of bruising and swelling over the left side of his chest. A ruptured pectoralis major muscle was suspected upon examining the injured area.

      Which of the following statements regarding the surface markings of the pectoralis major muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus

      Explanation:

      The pectoralis major is the superior most and largest muscle of the anterior chest wall. It is a thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies underneath the breast tissue and forms the anterior wall of the axilla.

      Its origin lies anterior surface of the medial half of the clavicle, the anterior surface of the sternum, the first 7 costal cartilages, the sternal end of the sixth rib, and the aponeurosis of the external oblique of the anterior abdominal wall.
      The insertion of the pectoralis major is at the lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus. There are 2 heads of the pectoralis major, the clavicular and the sternocostal, which reference their area of origin.
      The function of the pectoralis major is 3-fold and dependent on which heads of muscles are involved:
      – Flexion, adduction and medial rotation of the arm at the glenohumeral joint
      – Clavicular head causes flexion of the extended arm
      – Sternoclavicular head causes extension of the flexed arm

      Arterial supply of the pectoralis major, the pectoral artery, arises from the second branch of the axillary artery, the thoracoacromial trunk.

      The 2 heads of the pectoralis major have different nervous supplies. The clavicular head derives its nerve supply from the lateral pectoral nerve. The medial pectoral nerve innervates the sternocostal head. The lateral pectoral nerve arises directly from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, and the medial pectoral nerve arises from the medial cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      135.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is most likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopia:

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      A bitemporal hemianopia is most likely due to compression at the optic chiasm. This may be caused by pituitary tumour, craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma or aneurysm of the internal carotid artery. A posterior cerebral stroke will most likely result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The extensor digitorum longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L5, S1), a branch of the common fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      272.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles: ...

    Correct

    • Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer: Inferior rectus and superior oblique

      Explanation:

      Depression of the eyeball is produced by the inferior rectus and the superior oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      134.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely...

    Incorrect

    • Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely caused by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Compressive causes of CN III palsy cause early pupillary dilatation because the parasympathetic fibres run peripherally in the nerve and are easily compressed. In diabetes mellitus the lesions are ischaemic rather than compressive and therefore typically affect the central fibres resulting in pupillary sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      206.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Which of the following is considered the best diagnosis for the case presented above?

      Your Answer: Medial medullary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding the abductor digiti minimi, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the abductor digiti minimi, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: It is an abductor of the fifth finger at the metacarpophalangeal joint

      Correct Answer: It assists with flexion of the fifth finger at the middle phalanx

      Explanation:

      Abductor digiti minimi is a short intrinsic muscle of the hand. It belongs to the group of muscles collectively called hypothenar muscles due to their acting on the 5th finger. Besides abductor digiti minimi, other hypothenar muscles include flexor digiti minimi brevis and opponens digiti minimi.

      The main function of abductor digiti minimi involves abduction of the 5th finger, as well as flexion of its proximal phalanx. Along with other hypothenar muscles, this muscle forms the hypothenar eminence on the medial side of the palm.

      Like other hypothenar muscles, abductor digiti minimi receives nervous supply from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from root values C8 and T1.

      Abductor digiti minimi receives arterial blood supply from the palmar branch of ulnar artery, palmar digital artery, as well as branches of the ulnar side of the superficial palmar arch. The venous blood from the muscle is drained via the venous networks of the palm into the deep veins of the arm (vv. ulnares).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      467.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the main mechanism of action of cyclizine: ...

    Correct

    • What is the main mechanism of action of cyclizine:

      Your Answer: Histamine-H1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines e.g. cyclizine, are effective against nausea and vomiting caused by many different conditions, including motion sickness and vertigo. These agents act by inhibiting histamine pathways, and cholinergic pathways involved in transmission from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre. There is no evidence that any one antihistamine is superior to another but their duration of action and incidence of adverse effects differ. Adverse effects include drowsiness and antimuscarinic effects such as blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation and confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are...

    Incorrect

    • The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the vagus nerve (from the pharyngeal plexus), except for the tensor veli palatini, which is innervated by a branch of the mandibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      151.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.

    In...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.

      In which of the following nerves is the gluteus maximus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteal muscles are a group of muscles that make up the buttock area. These muscles include: gluteus maximus, gluteus medius. and gluteus minimus.
      The gluteus maximus is the most superficial as well as largest of the three muscles and makes up most of the shape and form of the buttock and hip area. It is a thick, fleshy muscle with a quadrangular shape. It is a large muscle and plays a prominent role in the maintenance of keeping the upper body erect.
      The innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle is from the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is true about the extensor carpi radialis longus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about the extensor carpi radialis longus?

      Your Answer: It assists with abduction of the hand at the wrist

      Explanation:

      The majority of extensor carpi radialis longus originates from the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus (distal third) and anterior aspect of the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. A small portion of its fibres originate from the common extensor tendon attached to the lateral epicondyle of humerus. The fibres unite into a muscle belly which extends approximately to the middle of the forearm. The muscle belly is then replaced by a flat tendon that travels distally along the lateral surface of the radius, together with the tendon of extensor carpi radialis brevis. Both tendons course towards the radial styloid process, deep to the tendons of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. Proximal to the wrist, the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis pass behind the radial styloid process within a common synovial sheath and continue along the radial groove deep to the extensor retinaculum of the wrist. At this level, the tendon of extensor carpi radialis longus is crossed by the tendon of extensor pollicis longus, after which it inserts on the posterior aspect of the base of the second metacarpal bone. Some tendon slips can insert into the first and third metacarpal bones.

      Extensor carpi radialis longus receives innervation from the radial nerve, with contributions mainly from spinal nerves C5-C8. The radial nerve is a branch of the brachial plexus.

      Extensor carpi radialis longus receives blood supply mainly from the radial artery. It directly supplies the distal part of the muscle, while the rest of the muscle receives blood from one of its radial recurrent branches. The brachial artery also supplies a small portion of the muscle via the radial collateral artery.

      Extensor carpi radialis longus primarily acts on the wrist joint to produce two major actions: (1) wrist extension by working synergistically with extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi ulnaris, and (2) hand abduction (radial deviation), with the help of flexor carpi radialis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his upper volar forearm. Upon further exploration and observation, it was revealed that the nerve that innervates the pronator teres muscle has been damaged.

      Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged in the case?

      Your Answer: The median nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator teres syndrome (PTS) is caused by a compression of the median nerve (MN) by the pronator teres (PT) muscle in the forearm.

      The median nerve, C6 and C7, innervates the pronator teres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      159.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient presents with a laceration on his hand and wrist that has...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a laceration on his hand and wrist that has cut the nerve that innervates opponens pollicis.
      The opponens pollicis muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The palmar digital branch of the median nerve

      Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Opponens pollicis is a small, triangular muscle that forms part of the thenar eminence. It originates from the flexor retinaculum and the tubercle of trapezium bone and inserts into the whole length of the first metacarpal bone on its radial side.
      Opponens pollicis is innervated by the recurrent branch of the median nerve and receives its blood supply from the superficial palmar arch.
      The main action of opponens pollicis is to flex the first metacarpal bone at the carpometacarpal joint, which opposes the thumb towards the centre of the palm. It also medially rotates the first metacarpal bone at the carpometacarpal joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration:

      Your Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive inspiration is produced by contraction of the diaphragm (depressing the diaphragm) and the external intercostal muscles (elevating the ribs). In inspiration, elevation of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement), elevation of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and depression of the diaphragm result in expansion of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. This results in an increased intrathoracic volume and decreased intrathoracic pressure and thus air is drawn into the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      158.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the...

    Correct

    • When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the intervertebral foramina between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, as well as the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae, this causes back pain. Which pair of nerves is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Fifth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves

      Explanation:

      The fifth cervical nerve passes between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, and the fourth thoracic nerve passes between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. Therefore, when the cancer metastasizes in this area, they are most likely affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Central Nervous System (6/8) 75%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Abdomen (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (13/26) 50%
Head And Neck (3/5) 60%
Upper Limb (3/8) 38%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (0/2) 0%
Lower Limb (3/4) 75%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
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